Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in ChandigarhBest Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh CALL: 93164 88821

IBTS ACADEMY is the only organization that is well known for its Best Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh You will find highly experienced & permanent Team (Group of 12 faculty members) that will prepare students for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Exam. The Particular caliber of skill and talent followed by IBTS ACADEMY ensure that every student who join us for coaching, feels fully confident, satisfied and properly prepared for exam.

To appear for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Exam a candidate has to go through a various phases selection process. IBTS ACADEMY is one must explore the Best and Top Institute for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh. With our dedicated faculty, we are able to get remarkable results in past years.

IBTS INSTITUTE offers  Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh, IBTS INSTITUTE is the prevalent establishment in the Chandigarh for various Competitive Exams. It is surely famous for its selective class management classes and productive Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh

Fresh batches for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh are going to start.

High Court of Punjab & Haryana at Chandigarh 353 Clerks Recruitment 2019 | Best Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh

Recently High Court of Punjab & Haryana at Chandigarh invites application for the post of 353 Clerk in the Subordinate Courts of Punjab. Apply Online before 03 October 2019. So If you are preparing for Punjab and Haryana High Court exam and looking for any good coaching institute for Punjab and Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh then Delhi Career Group is best option for you. Here is other detail of Punjab and Haryana High Court exam

JOB DETAILS:

  • Post Name: Clerk
  • Vacancy: 353 Posts

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR HIGH COURT RECRUITMENT:

  • Candidate should be possessed of Degree of Bachelor of Arts., Bachelor of Science or equivalent from a recognized University. With Hindi is compulsory subject.
  • Candidate must have proficiency in Computer operations.

AGE LIMITATIONS FOR CANDIDATES:

  • For General category 18 to 42 years.
  • For SC/ST/OBC of Haryana 18 to 46 years.

APPLICATION FEES:

The recruitment fee is Rs.1000 for UR, Rs.250 for ST, BC, ESM, SC, Rs.500 for Female paid via SBI Challan.

SELECTION PROCEDURE:

Candidates who have applied for the Punjab Haryana High Court Recruitment 2017, they can check selection procedure here. Applicants will be selected for High Court Clerk Jobs Based on their performance in the written test and Computer Efficiency Test Conducted by the Chandigarh High Court of Punjab Board.

  • Written Test
  • Computer Efficiency Test
  • Documents Verification

IMPORTANT DATES FOR HIGH COURT EXAM 2017

  • Starting Date for Online Application : 07.01.2019
  • Online Application (Step-I) Last Date : 04.02.2019
  • Application Fee Submission Last Date : 04.02.2019

PUNJAB HARYANA HIGH COURT CLERK EXAM PATTERN 2017

Sr. No SUBJECT EXAM TYPE MARKS
1 English Composition  Written Exams 50
2 General knowledge Descriptive Type 50

How to Apply for Punjab and Haryana High Court Clerk Exam?

Aspiring candidates can apply for Punjab and Haryana High Court Clerk Exam Online by visiting the official website www.aimsuccess.in

Why IBTS is Best Best Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh

Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh

IBTS is the Top Coaching Center for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh

IBTS is the top of the Best Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh. There are many reasons that make it best among the various institutes. Our motive is to push our students towards their destination to fulfill the needs of the students for the preparation of the examination.

Batches throughout the year:

For the Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Examination, candidates need proper guidance and efforts. For this examination preparation, IBTS offers batches throughout the year. So that you can easily prepare well before the examination under proper guidance. There is also availability of small size batches Coaching Classes for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh so that students can be easily comfortable with teacher and easily interacts with them. Evening, morning & weekend batch are available according to the students comfortable level.

Best Teaching faculty:

The most important thing for the any institute is the teaching staff and IBTS is FAMOUS for its Best teaching faculty It consists of well educated & professional teacher for various subjects. They are very  expert in their field. They help students in every respect to learn various tricks & short cut methodology.

Study course material:

We provide Books, Study notes, Daily assignments, practice sets with easy language to students so that students can achieve their goal. Our Notes contains each and every topic. Approximately 95% syllabuses of examination are cover in our study material. This is very beneficial for the students to reach up to their destiny.

Practice Sets:

We Provide 100+ practice sets for the preparation. Because learning in not enough for today’s competitive world. You should require proper practice.

  • IBTS provides best study material & practice sets of various topics according to the examination course syllabus of Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh
  • We provide last year’s question appears to analyze and improve weak portion.

Well management Infrastructure:

We have well management, neat & clean Infrastructure so that candidate can comfortable for the examination preparation. A proper well managed chairs, electricity and lighting in the class rooms for students comfort zone.

Hostel facilities:

The candidates who are form outstation, we provide Hostel & PG facilities.

These are facilities which makes IBTS the Best institute for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh. Their motive is to help the students to acquire their goal.

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Especially for the students wants to join IBTS for High Court Clerk Exam Coaching in Chandigarh. If the students are willing to join best Institute in for Punjab & Haryana High Court Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh  or from internal cities  Can freely contact on :

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IBTS ACADEMY is the only organization which is well known for its Best IBPS Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh. For IBPS Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh you will find highly experienced & permanent Team (Group of 17 faculty members) that will prepare students for IBPS Clerk 2017 Examination. The Particular caliber of skill and talent followed by IBTS ACADEMY ensure that every student who join us for coaching, feels fully confident, satisfied and properly prepared for exam.

To appear for IBPS Clerk Exam a candidate has to go through a various phases selection process. IBTS ACADEMY is one must explore the Best and Top Institute for IBPS Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh. With our dedicated faculty, we are able to get remarkable results in past years.

IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019 – Apply Online for 12075 Posts 

Best IBPS Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh

IBPS Clerk apply online 2019 link activated! As notified in the official notification, the online application for IBPS Clerk has started from 17th September 2019 at IBPS official website https://ibps.in. Candidates who want to apply for IBPS Clerk recruitment 2019 can fill out the IBPS Clerk application form from. The last date of application is 9th October 2019.The job applications for IBPS Jobs 2019 will be accepted online on or before 09 Oct 2019.

Important Dates – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

Starting Date to Apply Online 17 Sep 2019
Closing Date to Apply Online 09 Oct 2019
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training November 2019
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training 25 Nov 2019 to 30 Nov 2019
Download of call letters for Online examination – Preliminary November 2019
Online Examination – Preliminary 07 Dec 2019, 08.12 Dec 2019, 14 Dec 2019 & 21 Dec 2019
Result of Online exam – Preliminary December 2019/ January 2020
Download of Call letter for Online exam – Main January 2020
Online Examination – Main 19 Jan 2020
Provisional Allotment April 2020

Application Fee – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

For all Others ₹600 (inclusive of GST) 
For SC/ ST/ PWD/ EXSM candidates. ₹100 (inclusive of GST)
  • Pay the Examination Fee through Debit Card, Credit Card, Net Banking. Payment Mode: Online

Age Limit – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

For Gen/ UR Candidates 20 years to 28 years as on 01 Sep 2019.
Relaxation ( in Upper age limit ) 05 years for SC/ST candidates 

03 years for OBC candidates

10 years for PWD candidates

Qualification – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

  • i) A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.
  • ii) Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/ Diploma/ Degree in computer operations/ Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/ College/ Institute.

Post Details- IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

State No. of Post
 Andaman & Nicobar Island 14
Andhra Pradesh 777
Arunachal Pradesh 11
Assam 189
Bihar 295
Chandigarh 64
Chhattisgarh 174
Dadra & Nagar Haveli 04
Daman & Diu 02
Delhi 525
Goa 67
Gujarat 600
Haryana 328
Himachal Pradesh 129
Jammu & Kashmir 63
Jharkhnad 141
Karnataka 953
Kerala 349
Lakshadweep 01
Madhya Pradesh 440
Maharashtra 1257
Manipur 11
Meghalaya 07
Mizoram 09
Nagaland 11
Odisha 417
Punducherry 44
Punjab 634
Rajasthan 325
Sikkim 23
Tamil Nadu 1379
Telangana 612
Tripura 53
Uttar Pradesh 1203
Uttarakhnad 117
West Bengal 847
Total 12075

Selection Process – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

On the basis of Preliminary and Main Examination.

How to Apply – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

Read the detailed notification pdf attached below before Apply Online. If you are interested and found yourself eligible for Clerk, click on the apply online link given below. Then, find the appropriate option and fill up the form. You can apply online from from 17 Sep 2019 to 09 Oct 2019.

 

Nationality:

A candidate must be a citizen of India in order to apply for this post

Age :

Between 18 and 28 years.

Relaxation in the Upper Age Limit:

Upper age limit will be relaxed as under :

Sr. No. Category Relaxation in Age
(i) Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe (SC / ST) By 5 years, i.e. up to 33 years
(ii) Other Backward Classes (OBC) By 3 years, i.e. up to 31 years
(iii) Persons with Disabilities (PWD) By 10 years (GEN) 13 years (OBC) & 15 years(SC/ST)
(iv) Ex-Servicemen To the extent of service rendered by them in Armed Forces plus an additional period of 3years subject to maximum of 50 years.
(v) Widows/divorced women/ women judicially separated who are not re-married By 10 years
(vi) Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir between 1st January, 1980 and 31st December, 1989. By 5 years

 

NOTE: Cumulative Age Relaxation will not be available either under the above items or in combination with any other items.

Candidates seeking age relaxation are required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of interview.

 

Educational Qualifications :

i) At least a Bachelor’s Degree in any disciplinewith a minimum of 50% marks (pass class for SC/ST/PWD candidates) in the aggregate and the knowledge of word processing on PC.

ii) A candidate belonging to Ex-servicemen category should either be a graduate from a recognized University or should have passed the matriculation or its equivalent examination of the Armed Forces and rendered at least 15 years of defence service.

iii) Candidates applying for post in a particular state should be proficient in the language of the state i.e. know to read, write, speak and understand the language

Selection will be through Online Examination and Interview.

 

Online Examination:

The Online Examination will be for 200 marks

 

Sr. No. Name of Tests (Objective) No of Questions Maximum Marks Total Time
1 Test of Reasoning 40 40 2 Hours
2 Test of English Language 40 40
3 Test of Numerical Ability 40 40
4 Test of General Awareness 40 40
5 Test of Computer Knowledge 40 40
Total 200 200

 

Difficulty Level:

Easy to Moderate (IBPS Clerk Level questions will be asked for this exam.

i) The above tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi.

ii) A candidate has to qualify in each part of the Objective test separately. There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests. 1/4th marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates will have to pass in each of the objective tests. (Cut off marks will be decided by the bank)

iii) Final selection will be on the basis of candidate’s performance in the written examination and interview taken together in order of merit.

Numerical Ability: Number Systems, Simplification, Number series, Missing/Wrong Number, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Ages, Mixture and Allegation, Pipes and Cisterns, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Simple & Compound Interest, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Areas and Volumes, Permutations and combinations, Probability.

Data Interpretation: – Have a glance of Pie charts, Bar graphs, Line graphs. Mixed graphs, Case study, Data tables

 

Logical Reasoning / General Intelligence: Verbal Reasoning: Analytical Reasoning, Distance Test,

Seating Arrangement, Eligibility test (Decision making), Analogy, Classification, Coding Decoding, Odd Man out, Series, Mathematical Operation, Blood Relationships, Alphabet test, Data Sufficiency, Syllogism, Statements

Non Verbal Reasoning: Have a glance of Series (Non Verbal), Mirror/water image, Classification (Non Verbal), Analogy (Non Verbal)

 

General English: Synonyms, Antonyms, Vocabulary, Spotting errors, Idioms and Phrases, Sentence Improvement, Sentence Rearrangement, substitution, Cloze Tests, Inappropriate Usage of Words, Sentence Correction, English Comprehension
General Awareness: (Give preference to RBI Related banking topics)

Banking terms, History of RBI and Policies, Social Function of Banks, Schemes, World Organizations, National and International Current affairs, Important Events, New Appointments, Books and Authors, Prizes and Awards, Famous Places and persons, Days to remember.

 

Computer Knowledge: Basic computer fundamentals, History and Future of Computers, Basic Software & Hardware and their functionalities, Computer Operations / Shortcut Keys, Networking, abbreviation used in computers, Microsoft-office, Computer Languages, Internet.

 

Blue Print
Year   2012 Dec-11 2011
Topics Sub topic    
Numerical Ability Square Roots, Cube roots 2 2
Number System 3 6
Power
Surds & indices 1 1
Fraction 4 3
Time & Distance 2 2
HCF & LCM
Divisibility
Ratio & Proportion 1 1
Chain rule 1
Time & Work
Mensuration
simplification 12 12
Average 1 3
Clock 1 1
Discount
Triangle
Pipes & Cisterns
Partnership
Profit & Loss 2 1
Percentage 6 5
Probability
Simple & compound Interest 2 2
Number series 6 5
Area 4 4
Age 1 1
Train 1 1
    

DATA INTERPRETATION

 

BAR GRAPH
Time and distance
Ratio and Proportion
Number System
Percentage
PIE GRAPH
Ratio & Proportion
Discount
Profit & loss
Percent
Number System
Average
LINE GRAPH
Percentage
Average
Ratio & proportion
Passage
Ratio & proportion
Number System
Percentage
TABLE
Percentage
Number System
Average
Ratio & Proportion
Verbal Reasoning Analogy
Letter Series 1
Alphabet Test 2 1
Number Series 1 1
Number Ranking
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5
Sequential output Tracing 5
Seating Arrangement 5 5
Analytical Reasoning 5 5
Blood Relations
Coding & Decoding 2 7
Statements
Deriving Conclusions 5
Data sufficiency 5 5
Directions test
Mathematical Operations 5 5
Syllogisms 5 5
Statements
Non-verbal Reasoning Analogy
Completion of series 10 10
Complete & Incomplete pattern
Cubes & Dice
English Spotting Errors 10 10
Synonyms 3 3
Antonyms 2 2
Idioms & Phrase
Vocabulary
Sentence Improvement 5 5
Substitutions
Sentence Rearrangement
Comprehension 10 10
Sentence Completion 5 5
Spelling Correction 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10
General Knowledge Awards 2 3
Banking 18 15
Books & Authors 1 3
History
Marketing
Geography
Constitution of India 7 7
Abbreviations 3
Space
Constitution of India – Current Affairs
Famous Place 2 3
Days to remember 1 1
Indian Economy 4 4
Sports 4 5
Miscellaneous 3 4
General Science 1
Famous Persons 4 4
Agriculture 1
Computer Knowledge
Computer Knowledge 50 50

Please note that the eligibility criteria specified herein are the basic criteria for applying for the post. Candidates must necessarily produce the relevant documents in original and a photocopy in support of their identity and eligibility -pertaining to category, nationality, age, educational qualifications etc as indicated in the online application form. Please note that no change of category will be permitted at any stage after registration of the online application and the result will be processed considering the category under which has been made, subject to guidelines of the Government of India in this regard. Merely applying for CWE/ appearing for and being shortlisted in CWE and/or in the subsequent interview and/ subsequent processes does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be offered employment in any of the Participating Organisations. No request for considering the candidature under any category other than the one in which applied will be entertained

Nationality / Citizenship

A candidate must be either

  • a Citizen of India or
  • a subject of Nepal or
  • a subject of Bhutan or
  • a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1 January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
  • a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Age Limit

Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02 August 1986 and not later than 01 August 1994 (both dates inclusive)

Relaxation of Upper age limit:

Sr. No. Category Age relaxation
1 Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe 5 years
2 Other Backward Classes 3 years
3 Persons With Disability 10 years
4 Ex-Servicemen/Disabled Ex-Servicemen actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years
5 Widows Divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried 9 years
6 Persons ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 1-1-80 to 31-12-89 5 years
7 Persons affected by 1984 riots 5 years
8 Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory, Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only) 5 years
NOTE:

Candidates seeking age relaxation will be required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of Interview and at any subsequent stage of the recruitment process as required by IBPS/ Participating Organization. The following rules applicable to Ex-Servicemen re-employed under the Central government would apply to Ex-Servicemen candidates appearing for the CWE: Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured employment under the Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ will be permitted the benefit of age relaxation as prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group ‘C’/ ‘D’ under the Central Government. However, such candidates will not be eligible for the benefit of reservation for Ex-Servicemen in Central Government jobs. An ex-Servicemen who has once joined a Government job on civil side after availing of the benefits given to him/her as an Ex-Servicemen for his/her re-employment, his/her Ex-servicemen status for the purpose of the re-employment in Government jobs ceases. Candidates who are still in the Armed Forces and desirous of applying under Ex-servicemen category whose date of completion of specific period of engagement (SPE)  is completed one year from the last date for receipt of online application i.e. on or before 09.09.2014 are eligible to apply.

Educational Qualifications:

Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

Computer Literacy:

Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.  Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable. (Some questions may be put at the time of interview to ascertain the candidate’s familiarity with the Official Language of the State/UT) Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-Servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union as on 01.08.2013. Such certificates should be dated on or before 01.08.2013.

Note:

(1) Candidate should indicate the percentage obtained in Graduation calculated to the nearest two decimals in the online application. Where CGPA / OGPA is awarded, the same should be converted into percentage and indicate the same in online application.

(2) All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a recognized University / Institution and the result should have been declared on or before 01.08.2013.

(3) Calculation of Percentage: The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s) / year(s) by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honors / optional / additional optional subject, if any.

This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class / Grade is decided on basis of Honors marks only. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 59.99% will be treated as less than 60% and 54.99% will be treated as less than 55%.

Definitions of Ex-Servicemen (EXSM)

Ex-Servicemen (EXSM): 

Only those candidates shall be treated as Ex-servicemen who fulfill the revised definition as laid down in Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Personnel & Administrative Reforms Notification No.36034/5/85 Estt. (SCT) dated 27.01.1986 as amended from time to time.

Disabled Ex-Servicemen (DISXS):

Ex-servicemen who while serving in Armed Forces of the union were disabled in operation against the enemy or in disturbed areas shall be treated as Disabled Ex-servicemen (DISXS).

Dependents Of Servicemen Killed In Action (DXS):

Servicemen killed in the following operations would be deemed to have been killed in action attributable to military service war like operations or Border skirmishes either with Pakistan on cease fire line or any other country. fighting against armed hostiles in a counter insurgency environment  viz: Nagaland, Mizoram, etc. serving with peace keeping mission abroad. laying or clearance of mines including enemy mines as also mine sweeping  operation between one month before and three months after conclusion of an operation. frost bite during actual operations or during the period specified by the Government. dealing with agitating para-military forces personnel. IPKF Personnel killed during the operations in Sri Lanka. For the purpose of availing the concession of reservation for Dependents of Servicemen killed in action the member of the family would include his widow, son, daughter or his near relations who agree to support his family and an affidavit stating that the relaxation is availed by one dependent of Ex-servicemen or not availed by any Dependent of Servicemen killed in action will have to be submitted at the time of interview.The relaxation in upper age limit and in educational qualifications is not available to Dependents of Servicemen.

Note: The Territorial Army Personnel will be treated as ex-servicemen w.e.f. 15.11.1986.

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN & Selection Procedure 2017

The IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN will be divided into 2 parts, consisting of 2 written papers. The Preliminary examination is only qualifying in nature and will not be counted towards the final total. Only those who qualify through Phase I will be eligible to attend Phase II processes. There is no interview & final merit list will be prepared based on the marks scored by students in Mains Examination.

  • All the tests in both the exams will be available bilingually (in English & Hindi) except for English Language.
  • There will be negative marking for wrong answers. One fourth (or 0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty for wrong answers. There is no penalty for unanswered questions.
  • The scores will be normalized to equate the difficulty level of the papers in different slots.
  • You will be required to score a minimum overall cut off in both Prelims and Mains exams.
  • Besides this you will have to score minimum cut off scores in each of the sections in both examinations.
  • However, only the score of the Main examination will be considered for Final Merit Listing.
  • The final score will be scaled to a maximum of 100.

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN for Prelims 2017

Section No. of Questions Max. Marks Duration
English Language 30 30  

Composite

Time of 1 Hour

Numerical Ability 35 35
Reasoning Ability 35 35
Total 100 100

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN for Mains 2017

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN – This year IBPS has increased the difficulty level of Mains 2017 Exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains paper consist of 190 Questions of 200 marks in 160 minutes.

 Section
No. of  Questions Max. Marks Time
Reasoning & Computer  50 60 45 min
English Language 40 40 35 min
Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 min
General/Financial Awareness 50 50 35 min
TOTAL 190 200 160 min

Know all about IBPS Clerk Recruitment such as exam dates , eligibility criteria, vacancies here:

Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both – Preliminary and Main examination)

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Scores:

The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method.

Scores up to 2 decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations

Cutoff Score:

Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. Depending on number of the State/ UT wise vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview.

Common Interview:

Candidates who have been shortlisted in the main examination for CWE Clerks-V will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Bank in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The centre, address of the venue, time & date of Interview will be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interview call letters from authorised IBPS website www.ibps.in. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc. of interview will not be entertained. However the conducting agencies reserve the right to change the date/ venue/ time/ centre etc. of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date / session / venue / centre / set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any.

The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CWE (Main exam) and interview will be 80:20 respectively. The combined final score of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in the Main Examination of CWE Clerks-V and Interview. Interview score of the candidates failing to secure minimum qualifying marks or otherwise barred from the interview or further process shall not be disclosed.

A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on IBPS website.

Numerical Ability:

Number Systems, Simplification, Number series, Missing/Wrong Number, Chain Rule, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Ages, Mixture and Allegation, Pipes and Cisterns, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Simple & Compound Interest, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Areas and Volumes, Permutations and combinations, Probability.

Data Interpretation:

Pie charts, Bar graphs, Line graphs. Mixed graphs, Case study, Data tables

Logical Reasoning / General Intelligence:
Verbal Reasoning:

Analytical Reasoning, Distance Test, Seating Arrangement, Eligibility test (Decision making), Analogy, Classification, Coding Decoding, Odd Man out, Series, Mathematical Operation, Blood Relationships, Alphabet test, Data Sufficiency, Syllogism, Statements

Non Verbal Reasoning:

No Questions will be asked from this section

English / Hindi:
English (Optional):

Synonyms, Antonyms, Vocabulary, Spotting errors, Idioms and Phrases, Sentence Improvement, Sentence Rearrangement, substitution, Cloze Tests, Inappropriate Usage of Words, Sentence Correction, English Comprehension

Hindi (Optional):

Hindi Grammar & language knowledge, Passage, Synonyms, Antonyms, Spotting Errors, Filling the given Blanks with suitable words

General Awareness:

Banking terms, History of Banking, RBI, Fiscal Monetary Policies, Social Function of Banks, Marketing, World Organizations, National and International Current Events, Important Events, New Appointments, Books and Authors, World’s First Largest Longest, Prizes And Awards, Famous Places and persons, General Geography, General History, Indian Economy, General Polity, General Science, Sports And Recreation, Science And Technology, Days to remember.

Computer Knowledge:

Basic computer fundamentals, History and Future of Computers, Basic Software & Hardware and their functionalities, Computer Operations / Shortcut Keys, Networking, abbreviation used in computers, Microsoft-office, Computer Languages, Internet.

 Blue Print
Pattern Old Pattern New
Year 2011 Dec-11 2012 2013
Topics Sub topic
Numerical Ability Square Roots, Cube roots 2 2
Number System 3 6
Power
Surds & indices 1 1
Fraction 4 3 2
Time & Distance 2 2
HCF & LCM
Divisibility
Ratio & Proportion 1 1 2
Chain rule 1
Time & Work 1
Mensuration
simplification 12 12 10
Average 1 3 2
Clock 1 1
Discount
Triangle
Pipes & Cisterns
Partnership
Profit & Loss 2 1 2
Percentage 6 5 3
Probability
Simple & compound Interest 2 2 1+1
Number series 6 5 5
Area 4 4 1
Age 1 1 1
Train 1 1 1
BAR GRAPH
Time and distance
Ratio and Proportion
Number System
Percentage
PIE GRAPH
DATA INTERPRETATION Ratio & Proportion
Discount
Profit & loss
Percent
Number System
Average
LINE GRAPH 5
Percentage
Average
Ratio & proportion
Passage
Ratio & proportion
Number System
Percentage
TABLE
Percentage
Number System
Average
Ratio & Proportion
Verbal Reasoning Analogy 3
Letter Series 1 1
Alphabet Test 2 1 3
Number Series 1 1
Number Ranking
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5
Sequential output Tracing 5
Seating Arrangement (two rows) 5 5 5
Seating Arrangement (floor type) 5
Analytical Reasoning 5 5
Blood Relations
Coding & Decoding 2 7 6
Statements
Deriving Conclusions 5
Data sufficiency 5 5 3
Directions test 1
Mathematical Operations 5 5 5
Syllogisms 5 5 3
Statements
Puzzle Test 5
Non-verbal Reasoning Analogy
Completion of series 10 10
Complete & Incomplete pattern
Cubes & Dice
English Spotting Errors 10 10 12
Synonyms 3 3
Antonyms 2 2
Idioms & Phrase
Vocabulary
Sentence Improvement 5 5
Substitutions
Sentence Rearrangement 5
Comprehension 10 10 10
Sentence Completion 5 5 3
Spelling Correction 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10 10
General Knowledge Awards 2 3
Banking 18 15
Books & Authors 1 3
History
Marketing
Geography
Constitution of India 7 7
Abbreviations 3
Banking Affairs 20
Current Affairs 20
Famous Place 2 3
Days to remember 1 1
Indian Economy 4 4
Sports 4 5
Miscellaneous 3 4
General Science 1
Famous Persons 4 4
Agriculture 1
Computer Knowledge 50 50 40

RBI (ASSISTANT) EXAM 2012

Part-I: Reasoning

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters PCYO, using all the letters, but each letter only once in each word?

(a) None         (b) One          (c) Two          (d) Three        (e) More than three

2. The positions of the first and fifth letter of the word SUITABLE are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second and sixth letter, third and seventh letter, and fourth and eighth letter are interchanged. In the New arrangement, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is third from the left end and the alphabet which is second from the right end?

(a) None         (b) One          (c) Two          (d) Four          (e) More than four

Directions (3-4) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Among A,B,C,D and E, each scored different marks in an examination. Only one person scored more than C. E scored more than A but less than D. D did not score the highest marks. The one who scored the second lowest scored 71% marks. C scored 92% marks.

3. Who among the following is most likely to have scored 87% marks?

(a) A                 (b) B             (c) D                 (d) E               (e) Either A or D

4. Which of the following percentages is most likely to be B’s percentage in the exam?

(a) 68%           (b) 71%          (c) 84%          (d) 76%          (e) 97%

Directions (Q.5-7) : The following questions are based on the alphabetical series given below.

M J L I T Q S R K U F H C B D E A V P O G N

5. What will come in place of question (?) mark in the following series based on the above alphabetical series? N PO BDE

(a) UKR           (b) SRKU        (c) RKUF                (d) QSRK        (e) FUK

6. If in a certain code, ‘BIND’ is coded as ‘CLGB’ and ‘HELD’ is coded as ‘FDJB’ based on the series given above How will ‘FORK’ be coded in the same code language?

(a) HGKU        (b) UPKR        (c) KPSR         (d) UPSR            (e) UGSR

7. ‘HC’ is related to ‘KQ’ in a certain way. Similarly, ‘OG’ is related to ‘AB’ in the same way. To which of the following is ‘RK’ related following the same pattern?

(a) TJ               (b) SI                (c) TI               (d) HD                 (e) IM

8. Each vowel of the word SAVOURY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. If the new alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right) , which of the following will be fifth from the right?

(a) U                       (b) R                (c) Q                  (d) P                  (e) X

9. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word PACKETS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) One               (b) Two            (c) Three              (d) Four             (e) More than four

10. Point P is 10m to the West of Point A. Point B is 2m to the South of Point P. Point Q is 6m to the East of Point B. Point C is 2m to the North of Point Q. Which of the following three points fall in a straight line?

(a) A,C,P             (b) B, C,P         (c) Q,C,A        (d) A,B,Q         (e) A,B,C

Directions (11-15) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are following by two conclusions.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(c) if either conclusion I or II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(e) if both conclusions I and II are true

11. Statement:

H =I = J > K= L

Conclusions:

I. K < H        II. L = I

12. Statement:

S > C = O; P < C

Conclusions:

I. O < P        II. S > P

13. Statements:

A = B = C; A > R

Conclusions:

I. B > R       II. R < C

14. Statements:

D > E = F; J < F

Conclusions:

I. D > J        II. E < J

15. Statements:

P < Q > T; R = Q

Conclusions:

I. R > P       II. T < R

Directions (Q. 16-20) : Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight People are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A,B C and D are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given section arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits second to left of Q. A faces the immediate neighbour of S. Only one person sits between A and C. P does not face A. B is not an immediate neighbour of A.

16. Which of the following is true regarding D?

(a) D sits an one of the extreme ends of the line.

(b) A sits on the immediate left D.

(c) Q faces D.

(d) C is an immediate neighbour of D.

(e) No immediate neighbour of D faces R.

17. Who among the following faces C?

(a) P                   (b) Q               (c) R                     (d) S                   (e) Cannot be determined

18. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of the person who faces C?

(a) P                  (b) Q                (c) R                    (d) S                   (e) Cannot be determined

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) A                 (b) Q                 (c) R                    (d) B                  (e) S

20. Who among the following faces R?

(a) A                (b) B                  (c) C                    (d) D                  (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 21-26) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code, ‘time and money’, is written as ‘ma jo ki’, ‘manage time well’ is written as ‘pa ru jo’, ‘earn more money’ is written as ‘zi ha ma’ and ‘earn well enough’ is written as ‘si ru ha’.

21. What is the code for ‘earn’?
(a) si (b) ru (c) ha (d) ma (e) Cannot be determined
22. Which of the following represents ‘more time’?
(a) Pa jo (b) zi ki (c) ma ki (d) si jo (e) jo zi
23. What is the code for ‘manage’?
(a) ru (b) pa (c) jo (d) ha (e) Either ‘jo’ or ‘ru’
24. Which of the following may represent’ ‘money matters’?
(a) ki to (b) ma pa (c) fi ma (d) ha ma (e) ma jo
What does ‘ru’ stand for? 25
(a) well (b) manage (c) time (d) enough (e) Either ‘time’ or ‘enough’
26. Which of the following may represent ‘good enough’?
(a) ru si (b) da ha (c) si pa (d) si da (e) ki ru

Directions (Q. 27-33) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – are sitting around a circle facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. D sits third to left of A. A is an immediate neighbour of the both F and H. Only one person sits between C and F. B is not an immediate neighbour of D. Only one person sits between B and G.

27. A is related to G in a certain way. Similarly, C is related to H, according to the given seating arrangement. Who among the following is related to F, following the same pattern?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
28. Who among the following sits second to the right of C?
(a) F (b) A (c) D (d) G (e) H
29. What is the position of C with respect to the position of E?
(a) Third to the left (b) Second to the left (c) Immediate right (d) Third to the right (e) Second to the right
30. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(a) A sits on the immediate left of H. (b) B sits exactly between C and G. (c) F sits second to the right of C. (d) E is an immediate neighbour of C. (e) None is true
31. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of G?
(a) A, C (b) C, D (c) D, H (d) D, E (e) C,F
32. Who among the following sits exactly between C and F?
(a) A (b) D (c) G (d) H (e) B
33. Starting from A, if all the friends are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the positions of how many (excluding A) will remain unchanged?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four

Directions (34-37) : In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer:

(a) if only conclusion I follows.

(b) if only conclusion II follows.

(c) if either conclusion I or II follows.

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(e) if both conclusions I and II follow.

34. Statements:

All exams are tests.

No test is a question.

Conclusions:

I. At least some exams are questions.

II. No exam is a question.

35. Statements:

No bangle is an earring.

Some earrings are rings.

Conclusions:

I. No ring is a bangle.

II. Some rings are definitely not earnings.

36. Statements:

Some banks are colleges.

All colleges are schools.

Conclusions:

I. At least some banks are schools.

II. All schools are colleges.

37. Statements:

All rivers are lakes.

All lakes are oceans.

Conclusions:

I. All rivers are oceans.

II. At least some oceans are lakes.

Directions (38-40) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d) if the data neither in statement I nor in statement II are sufficient to answer the question statement

(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

38. On which date of the month was Parul born?

I. Her mother correctly remembers that she was born after 15th but before 21st of April.

II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after 18th but before 24th of April.

39. How many brothers does Meghna have? Meghna is a girl.

I. Kishore, the father of Meghna, is the only child of Kamal. Kamal has only two grandchildren.

II. Jyoti, the daughter-in-law of Kamal, has son and a daughter.

40. Among P, Q, R, S and T, sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

I. S sits third to the left of Q. S is an immediate neighbour of both P and T.

II. Two people sit between T and R. R does not sit at either of the extreme ends. P sits second to the right of T.

Part – II: English

Directions (Q. 41-45) : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

41. The government is planning to set ….. family welfare centres for slums in cities.
(a) another (b) with (c) for (d) in (e) up
42. Economic independence and education have women more assertive.
(a) prepared (b) made (c) marked (d) resulted (e) adjusted
43. In the modern world, the ……… of change and scientific innovation is unusually rapid.
(a) supplies (b) context (c) pace (d) fantasy (e) requirement
44. The unprecedented economic growth of china has ……… worldwide attention.
(a) perceived (b) proposed (c) neither (d) astonished (e) attracted
45. Each business activity ……….. employment to people who would otherwise be unemployed.
(a) taking (b) finds (c) creates (d) provides (e) given

Directions (Q. 46-55) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate while answering some of the questions.

The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially so, in the teaching – learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that allows you to look at the world from someone else’s perspective. Making other people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the first step to better communication – the primary goal of all true educators. Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree, how one communicates determines one’s effectiveness as a teacher. A study on communication styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through voice intonation and 55% through body language. Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages.

The process of communication is composed of three elements: the source (sender, speaker, transmitter or instructor) , the symbol used in composing and transmitting of the message (words or signs) , and the receiver (listener, reader or student) . The three elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It’s also about receiving information the others are sending to you, with as little distortion as possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it’s a process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or misinterpreted by the reciepent. When this isn’t detected it can cause tremendous confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity. Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in the teaching profession. Carefully planned and skillfully delivered messages can issue invitations to students that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others. Effective communication is essential for a wellrun classroom. A teacher who is able to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport. Although this sounds simple and obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying something out loud to a student. They must also realise that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

Directions (46-47) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Abundant

(a) Small                                (b) Little                 (c) False                 (d) Sufficient             (e) Rare

47. Muddled

(a) Skillfully organised       (b) Strongly controlled         (c) Clearly conveyed

(d) Isolated                            (e) Complicated

Directions (48-50) : Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. Sounds

(a) Seems                    (b) Corrects           (c) Noises            (d) Takes                    (e) Silences.

49. Affinity

(a) Partnership           (b) Partiality          (c) Weakness     (d) Compatibility      (e) Discord

50. Degree

(a) Extent                     (b) Goal                   (c) Affect              (d) Situation              (e) Direction

51. Which of the following is/are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly

(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity

(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.

(a) Only (A) and (C)                  (b) Only  (B)                                 (c) Only (A)

(d) Only (C)                                 (e) Only (B) and (C)

52. Which of the following is true about ‘rapport’ as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.

(B) It is based on understanding of other people’s frame of reference.

(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.

(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.

(a) Only (A) and (B)                    (b) Only (B) and (D)       (c) Only (A) , (B) and (D)

(d) Only (A) , (B) and (C)           (e) All are true

53. Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in student as per the passage?

(a) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within the lecture hours.

(b) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.

(c) To realise hat all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

(d) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.

(e) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

54. Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the passage?

(a) Source, Signs and Students

(b) Source, Sender and Speaker

(c) Signs, Words and Students

(d) Instructor, Listener and Reader

(e) Transmitter, Students and Receiver

55. Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?

(a) The body language and gestures account for 38% of communication and outweighs the voice intonation.

(b) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone and body language.

(c) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and outweighs the body language.

(d) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our tone and body language.

(e) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty per cent interpersonal for communication skills.

Directions (Q. 56-65) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e) . (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

56. The economic disparity (a) / has grown rapid in(b) / the era of globalisation(c) / and free market forces(d) / No error(e)

57. Research shows that people (a) / is more sensitive to perceiving (b) / messages that are consistent (c) / with their opinions and attitudes. (d) / No error (e)

58. Many poverty alleviation schemes (a) / are not applicable of (b) / slum dwellers in metro cities (c) / as they are above the poverty line(d) / No error (e)

59. Rather than considering it’s (a) / human capital as a drain on (b) / resources, India needs to (c) / resource develop its into a huge opportunity. (d) / No error (e)

60. The European nations have (a) / become one of the (b) / favorite destinations of the Indian students (c) / seek specialised Knowledge and training. (d) / No error (e)

61. If a credit card bill (a) / is paid in full and (b) / on time, none finance (c) / charges are levied. (d) / No error (e)

62. Training have a (a) / positive effect on (b) / development of various (c) / skills and abilities. (d) / No error (e)

63. Lack of ability to (a) / read or write is just one of (b) / the all barriers that keep (c) / the poor people under developed. (d) / No error (e)

64. Science and technology have (a) / become dominant factors (b) / affecting our economic, cultural (c) / and spiritual development. (d) / No error (e)

65. A social business sells products (a) / at prices that make it Self- sustaining, pays (b) / no dividends and reinvestment (c) / the profits in the business. (d) / No error (e)

Directions (Q.66-75) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The latest technology (66) put to use or about to arrive in market must be (67) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an (68) effect on business. Valve radio’s gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital equipment. Business has (69) the same but the technology has kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased (70) so did the use of its material and consequently its price. The traditional flour mills are losing business (71) customers now buy flour (72) from the market. As a result of this, the business is (73) Following the same lines as technology, the social trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken (74) by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also the technology and plan in (75) with these to ensure the success of his endeavour.

66. (a) to (b) needed (c) decided (d) besides (e) being
67. (a) hoped (b) welcome (c) released (d) Known (e) aware
68. (a) approximate (b) huge (c) uniform (d) excellence (e) enormous
69. (a) maintained (b) remained (c) often (d) mentioned (e) become
70. (a) mainly (b) and (c) how (d) also (e) some
71. (a) reason (b) due (c) young (d) as (e) old
72. (a) knowingly (b) ease (c) cheap (d) directly (e) forcefully
73. (a) shrinking (b) blooming (c) returned (d) same (e) small
74. (a) against (b) to (c) over (d) up (e) for
75. (a) lines (b) relativity (c) accordance (d) proper (e) toning

Directions (76-80) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) and (E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Understandably, the newly married woman herself wants to spend more time with the family.

(B) They also worry that she might not be able to defend herself in case of trouble.

(C) Once married, the in-law exert a lot of pressure for similar cause of security.

(D) Initially, the family does not want the “decent” girl going all around.

(E) Retaining female workers at door-to-door sales jobs is just as hard as ever.

76. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E (b) B (c) D (d) C (e) A
77. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) E
78. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) D (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) A
79. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C (b) A (c) E (d) D (e) B
80. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B (b) D (c) C (d) A (e) E

Part-  III: Aptitude

Directions (81-85) What will come in the place of Question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. (5 × 7) % of (34 × 55) + 456.60 = 699.1 + ?

(a) 412                (b) 422                (c) 418                  (d) 428               (e) None of these

82. 14 × 627 ÷ v1089 = (?)3 + 141

(a) 5v5               (b) (125)3            (c)25                      (d) 5                   (e) None of these

8Capture

(a) 2                    (b) 8                     (c) 512                  (d) 324                (e) None of these

84. (80 × 0.40)3 ÷ (40 × 1.6)3 × (128)3 = (2)? + 7

(a) 25                (b) 11                      (c) 12                    (d) 18                   (e) None of these

85. (v7 + 11)2 = (?)1/3 + 2v847 + 122

(a) 36 + 44v7         (b) 6             (c) 216                     (d) 37                 (e) None of these

D.(86-90): what approximate value should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions? (note: you are not expected to calculate the exact value)

86. 193.999 + 228.008 + ? + 422.005 = 1168.01
(a) 196 (b) 324 (c) 484 (d) 226 (e) 168
87. image001
(a) 50 (b) 30 (c) 110 (d) 70 (e) 20
88. 888888 ÷ 88 ÷ 8 = ?
(a) 1263 (b) 70600 (c) 1526 (d) 80800 (e) 1047
89. 27.8 × 28.74 × 17.3 = ?
(a) 12546 (b) 10228 (c) 13822 (d) 14995 (e) 15183
90. 1333.906 ÷ 2.103 × 5.9306 + 12.063 = ?
(a) 6063 (b) 10083 (c) 2826 (d) 5630 (e) 4041
D.(91-95): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following number series?
91. 28, 33, 31, 36, 34, ?
(a) 37 (b) 39 (c) 29 (d) 35 (e) None of these
92. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143
(a) 27 (b) 39 (c) 29 (d) 35 (e) None of these
93. 3, 28, 4, 65, 5, 126, 6, ?
(a) 215 (b) 216 (c) 217 (d) 218 (e) None of these
94. 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?
(a) 1135 (b) 1288 (c) 316 (d) 2254 (e) None of these
95. 7, 15, 32, ?, 138
(a) 70 (b) 65 (c) 76 (d) 57 (e) None of these
96. 12 men alone can complete a piece of work in six days, whereas 10 men and 21 women take three days to complete the same piece of work. In how many days can 12 women alone complete the same piece of work?
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 8 (e) None of these
97. The owner of an electronic store charges his customer 11% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,33,200 for an LED TV, what was the original price of the TV?
(a) Rs. 1,20,000 (b) Rs. 1,14,500 (c) Rs. 1,22,500 (d) Rs. 1,18,000 (e) None of these
98. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their ages is 16 : 3. What is the age of the daughter?
(a) 9 years (b) 3 years (c) 12 years (d) 6 years (e) None of these
99. Ram invested a sum of Rs. 2000 with a financing company at 12 % per annum for 2 yr. The interest at the end of the period received by Ram is
(a) Rs. 560  (b) Rs. 840  (c) Rs. 480  (d) Rs. 380  (e) None of these
100. A car covers a certain distance in three hours at the speed of 124 Km/hr. What is the average speed of a truck which travels a distance of 120 Km less than the car in the same time?
(a) 88 km/hr (b) 84 km/hr (c) 78 km/hr (d) 73 km/hr (e) None of these
101. The cost of four calculators and two stencils is Rs. 6,200 what is the cost of ten calculators and five stencils ?
(a) Rs. 15,500 (b) Rs. 14,875 (c) Rs. 16,200 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None
102. Find the average of the following set of scores: 214, 351, 109, 333, 752, 614, 456, 547
(a) 482 (b) 428 (c) 444 (d) 424 (e) None of these
103. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D is 54. What is the product of A and C?
(a) 2907 (b) 2805 (c) 2703 (d) 2915 (e) None of these
104. The sum of 55% of a number and 40% of the same number is 180.5. What is 80% of that number?
(a) 134 (b) 152 (c) 148 (d) 166 (e) None of these
105. There are 950 employees in an organisation, out of which 28% got promoted. Find the number of employees who got promoted.
(a) 226 (b) 256 (c) 266 (d) 216 (e) None of these
106. What is the least number to be added to 3000 to make it a perfect square?
(a) 191 (b) 136 (c) 25 (d) 84 (e) None of these
107. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 7,640 at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a. after two years?
(a) Rs. 2,634.9 (b) Rs. 2,643.9 (c) Rs. 2,364.9 (d) Rs. 2,463.9 (e) None of these
108. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 874 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(a) 1450 (b) 1640 (c) 1500 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
109. A juice centre requires 35 dozen guavas for 28 days. How many dozen guavas will it require for 36 days?
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 40 (d) 45 (e) None of these
110. Mohan sold an item for Rs. 4,510 and incurred a loss of 45%. At what price should he have sold the item to have earned a profit of 45%?
(a) Rs. 10,900 (b) Rs. 12,620 (c) Rs. 11,890 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None
111. In how many different ways can the letter of the word INHALE be arranged?
(a) 720 (b) 360 (c) 120  (d) 650  (e) None of these
112. What would be the circumference of a circle whose area is 745.36 sq cm?
(a) 94.4 cm (b) 88.8 cm (c) 96.3 cm (d) 87.4 cm (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 113-115) : What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
113. 5, 15, 35, 75, 155, (?)
(a) 295 (b) 315 (c) 275 (d) 305 (e) None of these
114. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, (?)
(a) 2160 (b) 1800 (c) 2520 (d) 1440 (e) None of these
115. 688, 472, 347, 283, 256, (?)
(a) 236 (b) 229 (c) 255 (d) 248 (e) None of these

Part -IV: General Awareness

121. USA has asked India to reduce its dependence on crude oil supply from which of the following countries which is also a member of OPEC?
(a) Venezuela (b) Iraq (c) Libya (d) Iran (e) Nigeria
122. Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be provided to the poor people to bring them into the network of financial inclusion?
(a) Insurance for life (b) Investment plan for future (c) Pension for old age (d) A bank account where he/she can save small amount (e) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalisation in case of need
123. Who among the following is the president of a country at present?
(a) Rupert Murdoch (b) Ban ki-moon (c) Yoshihiko Noda (d) Nicolas Sarkozy (e) None of these
124. What does the letter F denote in ‘NBFCs’, a term seen very frequently in banking world these days?
(a) Formal (b) Fiscal (c) Federal (d) Functional (e) Financial
125. Who among the following is the Deputy Governor of the RBI at present?
(a) Sunil Mitra (b) Azim Premji (c) HR Khan (d) Sushma Nath (e) None of these
126. Standard and Poor’s is a Credit Rating Agency of international repute. Which of the following is one such agency of Indian origin?
(a) IBA (b) BASEL (c) SEBI (d) IRDA (e) CRISIL
127. Who among the following is the chief minister of Uttar Pradesh at present?
(a) Akhilesh Yadav (b) Mulayam Singh Yadav (c) Mayawati (d) Amar Singh (e) None of these
128. Coin of which of the following denominations is called Small Coin?
(a) Rs. 1 (b) Rs. 2 (c) Rs. 5 (d) 50 paise (e) Rs. 10
129. Which of the following is not a highlight of the Union Budget 2012-13?
(a) No change in the rate of Corporate Tax. (b) All types of loans upto Rs. 35 lakh will be given on 6% interest only. (c) Service Tax raised from 10% to 12%. (d) Fiscal Deficit is targeted at 5.1% of GDP. (e) Substantial increase in Defence Budget.
130. Which of the following services products of banks is specially designed and launched to help students?
(a) Personal loan (b) Corporate loan (c) Business loan (d) Medical loan (e) Education loan
131. Which of the following terms is not directly associated with the functioning of RBI?
(a) Open Market Operations (b) Cash Reserve Ratio (c) SENSEX (d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (e) Public Debt Office
132. Which of the following is one of the major activities of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) ?
(a) On-site inspection of Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) (b) Helping Govt of India in preparing Union Budget and presenting it in the cabinet meeting. (c) Acting as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country. (d) Deciding rate of interest on Savings Bank Accounts in Public Sector Banks. (e) Representing India in World Bank and other such agencies.
133. Dipika, who won Crocodile Challenge Cup Finals, in December 2011, is a famous
(a) Badminton player (b) Table Tennis player (c) Lawn Tennis player (d) Chess player (e) Squash player
134. Who among the following is the recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature given in 2011?
(a) Bruce A Beutler (b) V S Naipaul (c) Thomas Transtromer (d) Ralph M Steinman (e) Chetan Bhagat
135. The 59th National Film Award for Best Actress was given to
(a) Vidya Balan (b) Kareena Kapoor (c) Priyanka Chopra (d) Lara Dutta (e) Roopa Ganguly
136. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the body/ agency set up to boost foreign investments in India?
(a) FORE (b) FCCB (c) FIPB (d) FEMA (e) AITAF
137. Which of the following is not considered infrastructural sector of the economy?
(a) Electricity (b) Textile Sector (c) Telecom (d) Cement (e) Road and Railways
138. Sachin Tendulkar made his 100th century in the match played between India and
(a) Pakistan (b) England (c) Australia (d) Bangladesh (e) Sri Lanka
139. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2012?
(a) TV Rajeswar (b) Aruna Irani (c) AR Rahman (d) Shabana Azmi (e) Anup Jalota
140. Which of the following countries is a member of BRICs?
(a) Bhutan (b) Iran (c) Romania (d) Sudan (e) South Africa
141. Which of the following countries has recently placed its first space lab ‘Tiangong-1’ into orbit?
(a) North Korea (b) Japan (c) India (d) France (e) China
142. Who among the following is the Solicitor General of India at present?
(a) Jacob Mathew (b) Rohinton Nariman (c) Gopal Subramaniam (d) Ashok Chawla (e) None
143. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India to motivate school children to attend school regularly?
(a) Kutir Jyoti (b) Mid-Day Meal (c) MGNREGA (d) RAY (e) Bharat Nirman
144. As per the news published in various newspapers, govt is planning to set up a regulatory body in educational field especially for
(a) Higher Education (b) Medical Education (c) Elementary Education (d) Secondary Education (e) Adult Education
145. Which of the following countries has been selected as the host of Commonwealth Games 2018?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) Pakistan (d) South Africa (e) Sri Lanka
146. France has agreed to supply ‘Rafale’ to India. The deal is about the supply of
(a) Warships (b) RADAR system (c) Fighter Aircrafts (d) Nuclear Reactors (e) Submarines
147. Seychelles, where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country in the
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) China Sea (c) Indian Ocean (d) Red Sea (e) Caspian Sea
148. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics?
(a) Absolute Zero (b)Molecular Equation (c) Zero Point Energy (d) Balance of Payment (e) Mass Defect
149. ‘Kyoto Protocol’, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with the field of
(a) International trade (b) Clean environment and climate change (c) Currency swap (d) Deep sea mining and oil exploration (e) Building a common food stock to save mankind in case of any natural calamity
150. World AIDS Day is observed on which of the following days?
(a) 1st December (b) 1st March (c) 1st April (d) 1st May (e) 1st January
151. USA decided to withdraw its army from which of the following countries after a nine-year long stay?
(a) Afghanistan (b) Libya (c) Egypt (d) Iraq (e) Iran
152. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(a) FIFA Cup (b) Champions Trophy (c) Ranji Trophy (d) Subroto Cup (e) Davis Cup
153. Which award is given to the coaches of sportspersons?
(a) Dronacharya Award (b) Arjun Award (c) Kalidas Samman (d) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (e) Saraswati Samman
154. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
(a) Heave (b) Silly point (c) Tee (d) Smash (e) Grand Slam
155. Anew nuclear power plant is being set up in which of the following places in India?
(a) Amethi (b) Firozabad (c) Jaitapur (d) Joshi Math (e) Satna
156. Which of the following schemes has been launched to make cities of India slumfree?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (b) Bharat Nirmal (c) Rajiv Awas Yojana (d) Indira Awas Yojana (e) None of these
157. Who among the following is a famous author of Indian origin?
(a)Homi K Bhabha (b) Kiran Desai (c) Swati A Piramal (d) Shabana Azmi (e) Ronen Sen
158. Who among the following has written the famous book Malgudi Days?
(a) VS Naipaul (b) Deepak Chopra (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d)Vijay Tendulkar (e) RK Narayan
159. Which of the following is NOT the name of the currency of a country?
(a) Rand (b) Pound (c) Dinar (d) Ecuador (e) Dollar
160. Which of the following is the unit of heat?
(a) Joule (b) Ohm (c) Ampere (d) Volt (e) Newton

Part- V: Computer Knowledge

161. What is backup?
(a) Adding more components to your network. (b) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination. (c) Filtering old data from the new data. (d) Accessing data on tape (e) Using earlier data.
162. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a
(a) software privacy policy (b) software license (c) software password manager (d) software log (e) None of these
163. What is an e-mail attachment?
(a) A receipt sent by the recipient. (b) A separate document from another program sent along with an e-mail. (c) A malicious parasite that feeds on your messages and destroys and contents. (d) A list of CC or BCC recipients. (e) A friend to whom e-mail is sent regularly.
164. Which of the following is the type of software that controls the internal operations in the computer and controls how the computer works with all its parts?
(a) Shareware (b) Public domain software (c) Application software (d) Operating system software (e) None of these.
165. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes.
(a) data redundancy (b) information overload (c) duplicate data (d) data consistency (e) data inconsistency
166. What is the main folder on a storage device called?
(a) Root directory (b) interface (c) Device driver (d) Platform (e) Main directory
167. To view information on the Web you must have a
(a) cable modem (b) Web browser (c) domain name server (d) hypertext viewer (e) None of these
168. A file is often referred to as a
(a) Wizard (b) document (c) pane (d) device (e)documentation
169. To protect yourself from computer hacker intrusions you should install a
(a) firewall (b) mailer (c) macro (d) script (e) None of these
170. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a client-server system?
(a) Mainframe (b) Mini-computer (c) Microcomputer (d) PDA (e) None of these
171. What happens when you boot up a PC?
(a) Portions of the operating system are copied from disk into memory. (b) Portions of the operating system are copied from memory onto disk. (c) Portions of the operating system are compiled. (d) Portions of the operating system are emulated. (e) The PC gets switched off.
172. Linux is an example of
(a) freeware (b) open source software (c) shareware (d)complimentary (e) None of these
173. Which of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(a) Database (b) Document processor (c) Graphics package (d) Spreadsheet (e) Power Point
174. A ………. is used to read hand written or printed text to make a digital image that is stored in memory.
(a) printer (b) laser beam (c) scanner (d) touchpad (e) None of these
175. You organise files by storing them in
(a) archives (b) lists (c) indexes (d) folders (e) None of these
176. A…………….. is pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background.
(a) guide (b) model (c) ruler (d) template (e) design-plate
177. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(a) WRD (b) TXT (c) DOC (d) FIL (e) WD
178. Removing and replacing devices without turning off your computer is referred to as
(a) Hot swapping (b) Plug-n-Play (c) Bay swap (d) USB swapping (e) None of these.
179. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called.
(a) information engines (b) locator engines (c) web browsers (d) resource locators (e) search engines
180. Compiling creates a(n)
(a) error-free program (b) program specification (c) subroutine (d) algorithm (e) executable program
181. Expansion cards are inserted into
(a) slots (b) peripheral devices (c) the CPU (d) the back of the computer (e) None
182. A device that connects to a network without the use of cable is said to be
(a) distributed (b) non-wired (c) centralized (d) open source (e) wireless
183. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)
(a) workstation (b) CPU (c) magnetic disk (d) integrated circuit (e) complex circuit
184. Junk e-mail is also called
(a) crap (b) spoof (c) sniffer script (d) spool (e) spam
185. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to “infect” other computers is called a
(a) disease (b) torpedo (c) hurricane (d) virus (e) infector
186. …………… shows the files, folders, and drives on your computer, making it easy to navigate from one location to another within the file hierarchy.
(a) Microsoft Internet Explorer. (b) Windows Explorer (c) My Computer (d) Folders Manager (e) Windows Locator
187. The …………………. manual tells you how to use a software program.
(a)Documentation (b) programming (c) user (d) Technical (e) designer
188. A collection of interrelated records is called a
(a) utility file (b) management information system (c) database (d) spreadsheet (e) datasheet
189. File extension is used
(a) For naming the file (b) To ascertain that file name is not lost (c) To identify file (d) To identify file type (e) to make items complex
190. What is Gutter margin?
(a) Margin added to left margin (b) Margin added to right margin while printing (c) Margin added to binding side of the page while printing (d) Margin added to outside of page while printing (e) None of these
191. ALU of CPU has
(a) RAM space (b) Register (c) Byte space (d) Secondary storage space (e) None of these
192. What happens when operating system is loaded in RAM?
(a) Copying (b) Device driving (c) Booting (d) Multitasking (e) None of these
193. In page preview mode
(a) You can see all the pages of your document (b) You can see only that page on which your are currently working (c) You can see only that page which have no graphics (d) You can see only title page of your document (e) You can see only the last page of your document
194. When you will start your computer Boot routine will perform
(a) RAM Test (b) Disk drive test (c) Memory test (d) Power – on – self test (e) Whether power supply is on or off
195. Machine language uses
(a) Numeric code (b) English language code (c) Java Language (d) CPU Processing code (e) None of these
196. What is the keyboard short – cut for new slide?
(a) Ctrl + M (b) Ctrl + N (c) Ctrl + Shift + N (d) Ctrl + s (e) None of these
197. Vertical space between lines of text in document is called
(a) Double space (b) Line gap (c) Single space (d) Vertical spacing (e) Line spacing
198. Full form of CD – RW is
(a) Compact Drum, Read, Write (b) Compact Diskette, Read, Write (c) Compact Disc, Read – Only then write (d) Compact Diskette with Random Write Capability (e) Compact Disc – Rewritable
199. Password makes users capable
(a) To enter into system quickly (b) To use time efficiently (c) To retain the secrecy of files (d) To make file structure simple (e) To feel special
200. Files deleted from hard disc are sent to
(a) Dustbin (b) Floppy disc (c) Clip board (d) Mother board (e) Recycle bin

Answer Key:

1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(e) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(c)
9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(e) 14.(d) 15.(e) 16.(d)
17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(e) 20.(a) 21.(c) 22.(e) 23.(b) 24.(c)
25.(a) 26.(d) 27.(d) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(e) 31.(b) 32.(e)
33.(b) 34.(b) 35.(d) 36.(a) 37.(e) 38.(d) 39.(e) 40.(b)
41.(e) 42.(b) 43.(c) 44.(e) 45.(d) 46.(b) 47.(c) 48.(a)
49.(d) 50.(a) 51.(a) 52.(e) 53.(c) 54.(a) 55.(d) 56.(b)
57.(b) 58.(b) 59.(d) 60.(d) 61.(c) 62.(e) 63.(c) 64.(e)
65.(c) 66.(e) 67.(d) 68.(e) 69.(b) 70.(b) 71.(d) 72.(d)
73.(a) 74.(c) 75.(c) 76.(c) 77.(b) 78.(d) 79.(e) 80.(d)
81.(a) 82.(d) 83.(c) 84.(b) 85.(c) 86.(b) 87.(d) 88.(a)
89.(c) 90.(e) 91.(b) 92.(c) 93.(c) 94.(a) 95.(e) 96.(b)
97.(a) 98.(d) 99.(b) 100.(b) 101.(a) 102.(e) 103.(b) 104.(b)
105.(c) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(e) 109.(d) 110.(c) 111.(a) 112.(e)
113.(b) 114.(a) 115.(d) 116.(a) 117.(e) 118.(e) 119.(d) 120.(c)
121.(d) 122.(d) 123.(d) 124.(e) 125.(c) 126.(e) 127.(a) 128.(d)
129.(b) 130.(e) 131.(c) 132.(a) 133.(e) 134.(c) 135.(a) 136.(c)
137.(b) 138.(d) 139.(a) 140.(e) 141.(e) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(a)
145.(b) 146.(b) 147.(c) 148.(d) 149.(b) 150.(a) 151.(d) 152.(e)
153.(a) 154.(b) 155.(c) 156.(c) 157.(b) 158.(e) 159.(d) 160.(a)
161.(b) 162.(b) 163.(b) 164.(d) 165.(e) 166.(a) 167.(b) 168.(b)
169.(a) 170.(a) 171.(a) 172.(b) 173.(d) 174.(c) 175.(d) 176.(d)
177.(c) 178.(b) 179.(e) 180.(e) 181.(a) 182.(e) 183.(d) 184.(e)
185.(d) 186.(b) 187.(c) 188.(c) 189.(d) 190.(c) 191.(b) 192.(c)
193.(a) 194.(d) 195.(a) 196.(a) 197.(e) 198.(e) 199.(c) 200.(e)

IBPS Clerk Mains : Model Paper

Q.1) In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’. Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language?
a) si b) pa c) ti d) ke e) None of these
Q.2) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below? C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A AB ?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
Q.3) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letters only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three
Q.4) The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternatives shall replace the questions mark? AD, FC, HK, MJ ?
a) NQ b) OQ c) OR d) MP e) None of these
Q.5) If the letters in the word ‘DOLPHIN’ are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?
a) O b) D c) I d) L e) None of these
Q.6) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) horses b) Dog c) Camel d) Cow e) Fox
Q.7) In a certain code ‘RUST’ is written as ‘QVRU’. How is ‘LINE’ written as that code?
a) KJMF b) KJLI c) KMJF d) KJME e) None of these
Q.8) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘WONDERS’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters are between them in the English alphabet?
a) One b) Two c) three d) Four e) More than three
D.9-10) Study the following information and answer the question given below it. A, B, C, and D live on floors 3 to 6 of the same six storied building.A lives on fourth floors. Only one person live on the floors between A and B. C does not live on a floor above A’s floor.Q.9) Who lives on a floor immediately above B’s floor?
a) A b) C c) D d) A and C e) B lives on top floor
Q.10) Who lives on the fifth floor?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these
D.11-13) Study the arrangement of letters and digits given below and answer the question follows.Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P

Q.11) If each of the consonants in the above arrangement is replaced by the letters preceding it in the alphabetic series how many vowels will be obtained?

a) Nil b) One c) Two d) Three e) Four
Q.12) If first all the digits are arranged in descending order and then the letters are arranged in alphabetic order, the position of how many digits and alphabets will remain unchanged?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these
Q.13) If one is subtracted from each of the members, which of the following will be the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 2 d) 1 e) None of these
Q.14) In a certain code ‘EXPERT’ is written as ‘$Z%$Q5’ and ‘PETROL’ is written as ‘%$5Q#9’. How will ‘EXPLORE’ be written in that code?
a) $Z%9Q#$ b) $Z%9#Q$ c) $Z%9#$Q d) $Z%9$#Q e) None of these
Q.15) Sunil walks towards the east from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the east. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?
a) Cannot be determined b) Two c) Three d) Four e) None of these
D.16-20) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II give n below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers as
a) If the data in statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in statements I alone or in Statements II alone are sufficient to answer the questions
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary the question
Q.16) Who among M, N, P and R is facing North?I. Only one among the four faces North

II. M and N face West while P is facing South

Q.17) Is it afternoon in Delhi?I. The weather is bright, humid and hot in Delhi

II. Thirteen hours ago it was midnight in Delhi

Q.18) How is D related to B?I. D is the sister of B’s only sister’s son

II. D is sister of Q, whose mother has only two siblings-a brother A and a sister B.

Q.19) Is the child holding a yellow coloured flower?I. When the thorn of the flower pricked his finger, the colours of the flood matched that of the flower

II. The child is carrying a rose in his hand

Q.20) Who among P, Q, R, S and T, each having different height, is the tallest? I. T is shorter only than R and SII. Q is not as tall as P and is shorter than R and S
D.21-25) Study the following information and answer the question which follow? (i) K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting along a circular table facing the centre(ii) L is sits between N and O

(iii) K is third to the left of O

(iv) Q is second to the left of M, who is to the immediate left of P

Q.21)  Which is correct position of L with respect to Q?

a) Second to the right b) First to the left c) First to the right d) Third to the right e) None of these
Q.22) Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
a) LO b) MK c) QN d) LN e) None of these
Q.23) Who sits second to the left of L?
a) P b) M c) K d) Q e) None of these
Q.24) Who sits between M and Q?
a) O b) N c) K d) L e) None of these
Q.25) Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the other two?
a) NQL b) PMK c) POK d) MOP e) None of these
D.26-30) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding common known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answers as
a) If only conclusion I is true
b) If only conclusion II is true
c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
e) If both conclusions I and II are true
Q.26) StatementsAll erasers are pencils. Some pencils are pen No pen is a paper.

Conclusions I. Some erasers are papers. II. No paper is an eraser.

Q.27) Statements All boxes are tables. All windows are table All tables are fans Conclusions I. All windows are fans II. Some tables are boxes.
Q.28) Statements Some poles are lights. All lights are bulbsSome bulbs are wires.Conclusions I. Some poles are bulbs. II. Some lights are wires.
Q.29) Statements All buildings are roads. All roads are trucks All trucks are mountains.Conclusions I. Some buildings are mountains. II. Some mountains are roads.
Q.30) Statements Some spoons are bowls. Some pans are both spoons and bowls. Some forks are bowls.ConclusionsI. Some forks are spoons. II. Some pans are forks.
D.31-33) In these questions symbols $, #, % are used for different meanings as follows. $ means ‘Neither greater nor equal to’# means ‘Neither greater nor smaller than’% means ‘Neither smaller nor equal to’In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusion I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers as
a) If only conclusion I is true
b) If only conclusion II is true
c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
e) If both conclusion I and II are true
Q.31) Statements S $ P, P % Q, Q # R
Conclusions I. R $ S             II. R % S
Q.32) Statements A $ B, B # D, D % C
Conclusions I. D $ A           II. B % C
Q.33) Statements M # K, K % P, P $ R
Conclusions     I. R $ M       II. P % M
D.34- 35) Read the following  information carefully and answer the question followIf ‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’

If ‘A+B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’If ‘A÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’

If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

Q.34) In the expression ‘P+Q×R’ how is R related to P

a) Daughter b) Brother c) Father d) Sister e) None of these
Q.35) In the expression ‘P÷Q-T’ how is T related to P?
a) Mother b) Sister c) Brother d) Either brother or sister e) None of these
D.36-40) Read the following information and choose the right alternate for the questions give, afterwards.The sports week of an institute was organized from 19th to 26th of a month, 19th being a Wednesday. During that period six-games-Cricket c) , Badminton b) , Table Tennis (T) Kho-Kho (K) , Hockey (H) and Football (F) were played, one game on each day. Further information is

(i) Hockey was not played on the closing day, i.e., on 26th.

(ii) Table Tennis was played on the previous day of Cricket.

(iii) Football was not played either on Wednesday or Saturday.

(iv) No game was played on Thursday and Sunday.

(v) Kho-Kho was played on Monday.

(vi) There was a gap of two days between Cricket and Football.

Q.36) The sports week started with which game?

a) Table Tennis b) Cricket c) Kho-Kho d) Hockey e) None of these
Q.37) How many days gap is there between Hockey and Football?
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Two e) None of these
Q.38) Which pair of games was played on Wednesday?
a) Hockey and Badminton b) Hockey and Cricket c) Cricket and Table Tennis d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
Q.39) Which game exactly precedes Kho-Kho?
a) Hockey b) Football c) Cricket d) Table Tennis e) No game precedes
Q.40) Table Tennis follows which game?
a) Hockey b) Cricket c) Table Tennis d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
D.41-50) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?Q.41) 3.8×5.6×11.5-31.653=?
a) 234.880 b) 265.404 c) 213.067 d) 256.072 e) None of these
Q.42)image001
a) 415 b) 384 c) 492 d) 346 e) None of these
Q.43) 93% of 456=?
a) 435.06 b) 419.02 c) 443.04 d) 424.08 e) None of these
Q.44) 8.2×?=465.76
a) 56.8 b) 48.6 c) 62.4 e) 74.2 e) None of these
Q.45) 1485÷(44×0.75)=?
a) 33 b) 56 c) 45 e) 67 e) None of these
Q.46) 126÷8÷0.4=?
a) 36 b) 42 c) 48 d) 54 e) None of these
Q.47) 9358-5086-2384=?
a) 1788 b) 1988 c) 2188 d) 2388 e) None of these
Q.48)image003
a)    image005 b)    image007 c)            image009 d)            image011 e) None of these
Q.49)image013
a) 360000 b) 60000 c) 3600 d) 6000 e) None of these
Q.50) 23.35+ 33.25 + 325.52=?
a) 382.12 b) 387.14 c) 391.92 d) 404.86 e) None of these
D.51-55) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note you are not expected to calculate the expect value)Q.51) 11.5% of 666 ×18.3%of 888=?
a) 18338 b) 12446 c) 10520 d) 11542 e) 15608
Q.52) 2898÷ 22÷2 =?
a) 43 b) 52 c) 278 d) 165 e) 66
Q.53) 18.999×12.005×25.998=?
a) 5930 b) 4860 c) 4590 d) 3320 e) 6470
Q.54) image015?
a) 29 b) 9 c) 25 d) 17 e) 13
Q.55)image017
a) 19 b) 4 c) 11 d) 15 e) 6
D.56-60) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?Q.56) 27, 23, 21, 17, 15, ?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11 e) None of these
Q.57) 5, 11, 24, 51, ?, 217, 440
a) 105 b) 106 c) 107 d) 108 e) None of these
Q.58) 11, 13, 17, 19, ?, 29, 31
a) 25 b) 26 c) 27 d) 23 e) None of these
Q.59) 2, 5, 3, 8, 5, 11, 6, ? 9
a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15 e) None of these
Q.60) 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, ?, 128
a) 68 b) 65 c) 66 d) 67 e) None of these
Q.61) The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number?
a) 83 b) 79 c) 81 d) 77 e) None of these
Q.62) The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D?
a) 11440 b) 11024 c) 10608 d) 11232 e) None of these
Q.63) The owner of a cell phone shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone?
a) Rs.5845 b) Rs.6750 c) Rs.5900 d) Rs.6925 e) None of these
Q.64) If  image019is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number?
a) 69 b) 59 c) 89 d) 79 e) None of these
Q.65) If an amount of Rs.85602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each persons get?
a) Rs.2594 b) Rs.2954 c) Rs.2549 d) Rs.2495 e) None of these
Q.66) 43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number?
a) 416 b) 429 c) 403 d) 384 e) None of these
Q.67) If the fractions image021 and image023 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth?
a)image023 b)image025 c)image027 d)image029 e) None of these
Q.68) If image031 is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 10768. What is the number?
a) 46 b) 2304 c) 48 d) 2116 e) None of these
Q.69) The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, Then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school?
a) 49: 52 b) 51:50 c) 50: 51 d) 52: 49 e) None of these
Q.70) Sumit invests Rs.4762, which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is the monthly income?
a) Rs. 28572 b) Rs. 23810 c) Rs.19048 d) Rs.14285 e) None of these
Q.71) Ms.Vishakha deposits an amount of Rs.35800 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 15% per annum for 4 yr. What total amount will Ms.Vishakha get at the end of 4 yr
a) Rs. 45680 b) Rs.39880 c) Rs.21480 d) Rs.57280 e) None of these
Q.72) There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred?
a) 603 b) 402 c) 804 d) 703 e) None of these
Q.73) In an examination Shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination?
a) 83 b) 65 c) 82 d) 78 e) 70
Q.74) What should be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs.8930 at the rate of 8% per annum after 5 yr?
a) Rs. 5413 b) Rs.2678 c) Rs. 3572 d) Rs.4752 e) None of these
Q.75) The cost of 12 chairs and 15 tables is Rs. 58968. What is the cost of 4 chairs and 5 tables?
a) Rs. 19656 b) Rs. 29484 c) Rs.39312 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
Directions (76-80): Study the following graph carefully and answer thequestions that follow:

The graph given below represents the number of users of two broadband services

A and B across 5 cities P, Q, R, S and T.

image034

Q.76) What is the total number of users of brand B across all give cities together?
a) 2700 b) 3000 c) 3100 d) 2900 e) 3200
Q.77) The number of users of brand A in city T is what percent of the number of users of brand B in city Q?
a) 150 b) 110 c) 140 d) 160 e) 120
Q.78) What is the average number of users of brand A across all five cities together?
a) 560 b) 570 c) 580 d) 590 e) 550
Q.79) What is the difference between the total number of users of brand A and B together in city R and the ottal number of users of brand A and B together in city P?
a) 170 b) 140 c) 130 d) 150 e) 160
Q.80) What is the respective ratio of the number users of brand A in city P to the number of users of brand B in city S?
a) 5 : 7 b) 4 : 7 c) 2 : 5 d) 3 : 4 e) 5 : 6
D.81-95) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
          “Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, “You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it?”
          “Because” Sean replied, “I have a good feed every night at the emperor’s orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to last a fortnight”.
“Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke’s habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
          At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits was excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor’s men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook him as the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilesslybefore ting him free.
Q.81) How did old Sean manage to meet his food requirements?
a) By buying food from the market b) His nephew Luke took care of his requirements c) Luke brought fruits from the emperor’s orchard for Sean d) He picked up fruits from the emperor’s orchard e) The emperor provided him with ample supply of fruits
Q.82) Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
a) Sean was a poor and suffering man b) Luke came to know about the orchard from his uncle c) Sean initially hesitated to take his nephew along d) Luke was finally- set free e) Both Sean and Luke collected fruits from Emperor’s orchard
Q.83) Why was Sean reluctant to take Luke along?
a) Because he was a selfish man b) He feared that Luke’s reaction may alert the Emperor’s men c) Because Luke could harm him d) He wanted to bring fruits for Luke himself e) He knew Luke was a greedy person
Q.84) How often did Sean visit the emperor’s orchard?
a) Daily b) Once a month c) In a period of two weeks d) Never, his nephew Luke brought fruits for him e) Everyday during midnight
Q.85) Luke remained behind at the orchard because he
a) was greedy and wanted to collect more fruits b) waited for the Emperor’s men to arrest him c) lost his composure and started expressing his feelings loudly d) had waited for his uncle to return e) could not move in the dark
Q.86) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Luke did not take good care of his Uncle b) The Emperor was a wicked man c) Lack of self-control had put Luke into trouble d) Orchards are highly guarded areas and not meant for the public e) Luke had a habit of speaking loudly
Q.87) What does “bird of passage”; mean in the context of the given passage?
a) There was a bird in the orchard b) Bird’s song alerted Emperor’s men c) Other people also stole from orchards d) Emperor knew him personally e) He did not visit orchard regularly
Q.88) Why did Sean leave immediately after collecting the fruits?
a) He feared that the bird’s song would awaken the Emperor b) To avoid getting caught by the Emperor’s men c) He saw the Emperor’s men approaching d) He wanted to leave Luke alone e) He was afraid of the dark
Q.89) The Emperor’s men seized Luke immediately because he
a) was a potential threat to the kingdom b) did not take care of his uncle c) often lost self-control d) was suspected for damaging the Emperor’s orchard e) was a good friend of the Emperor
Q.90) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Reiterated
a) pleaded b) regurgitated c) protested d) repeated e) recapitulated
Q.91) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Extreme
a) end b) high c) severe d) serious e) moderate
Q.92) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Reluctant
a) disinclined b) opposed c) against d) resistant e) None of these
Q.93) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Accompany
a) go with b) together c) synchronously d) along e) harmoniously
Q.94) Choose the word which s most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Pounded
a) weighed b) released c) paid d) attended e) caressed
Q.95) Choose the word which s most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Mercilessly
a) calmly b) compassionately c) mildly d) forgivably e) sympathetically
D.96-105) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which lifts the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
          An old couple was asking for water on the pavement outside an office. They (96) to be pitifully poor. When asked where they were (97) to, they told that they had come from a (98) village to get their cataract-afflicted eyes operated. But they were stranded. The stranger who had (99) them there with a promise of treatment was (100) . Humanely, few staff members of the office arranged for their(101) for a night and next day (102) to a reputed hospital, whose eye surgeon had helped (103) poor patients. He examined his new patients and got them admitted. The surgeon (104) picked beggars from the streets and operated them for free. The old couple stayed in the hospital for a week and came out with a new (105) .They were now happier and healthier.
Q.96) a) wanted b) apparently c) wished d) appeared e) liked
Q.97)           a) headed b) journey c) sitting d) footing e) tourist
Q.98) a) nearing b) residential c) close d) distantly e) nearby
Q.99) a) took b) asked c) bring d) brought e) walked
Q.100) a) forgotten b) untractable c) untraceable d) retraceable e) missed
Q.101) a) refuge b) asylum c) living d) livelihood e) shelter
Q.102) a) took b) transferred c) bought d) lead e) bring
Q.103) a) many b) greater c) quiet d) much e) lot
Q.104) a) timely b) repeatedly c) unwillingly d) constantly e) continuously
Q.105) a) happy b) insight c) site d) sense e) sight
D.106-110) Which of the phrases a) ,b) , c) and d) given below should replace the phrase given in boldin the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as answer.
Q.106) Balding is much more common in males than females.
a) at males than females b) in males then females c) at males then females d) in males against females e) No correction required
Q.107)Sun is the force before all natural phenomena.
a) behind all natural b) responsible all natural c) at all natural d) pushing all natural e) No correction required
Q.108) Many healthy people are been infected by the virus.
a) are having infected b) are being infected c) are in infection d) were bearing infected e) No correction required
Q.109) It is predicted that oil reserves will finished by 2034.
a) reserves are finished b) reserves would finish c) reserves have finish d) reserves should finish e) No correction required
Q.110) The standard of English in the schools are highly uneven
a) are being uneven b) are often uneven c) is highly uneven d) is high unevenly e) No correction required
D.111-115) Rearrange the following six sentencesa) ,b) , c) , d) , e) and f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer questions given below them.
A. Lack of infrastructural support has been one reason.
B. Therefore number of people willing to learn the art has dropped
C.Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art of Kerala.
D. There have been several factors responsible for it.
E. It is now considered a dying form of art.
F. Also, the government has not taken any initiative to preserve it.
Q.111) Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) F b) e c) d d) b e) a
Q.112) Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) a b) c c) d d) e) e) F
Q.113) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) a b) e c) c d) d e) e
Q.114) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) c b) a c) b d) e e) F
Q.115) Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) e b) F c) b d) d e) a
D.116-120) Read each sentence to find out whether these is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
Q.116) The principle that (A) / a pen is mightier (B) / then a sword (C) / was known to early Greeks. (D) / No error (E)
Q.117) Martha missed her slog (A) / who died of a (B) / skin infection at a (C) / very young age. (D) / No error (E)
Q.118) There was such (A) / a crowd that (B) / he would not (C) / find his brother.(D) / No error (E)
Q.119) Having managed de (A) / team of two (B) /years, he knew (C) / his players well (D) / No error (E)
Q.120) Because of heavy (A) / rains the trains (B) / are disable to (C) / run on time. (D) / No error (E)
Q.121) What is Web casting?
a) Casting a movie /TV star in a role on the ww b) Transmitting the Sec and audio on the Internet c) Playing of music on the Internet d) Searching on the Web e) None of the above
Q.122) The date command at the DOS prompt enables you to
a) view the date and time b) change the date c) change the date and time d) change the day only e) None of the above
Q.123) What are batch files in relation to computer?
a) They begin with the letter BAT b) They help you to keep files in batches c) They help you to keep directories in batches d) They help you to club a group of statements and run them one after together e) They help you to keep both directories and files in batches
Q.124) When you delete files in windows operating system they are
a) delete permanently b) put in recycle bin c) wiped thoroughly so that nobody is able to recover the file back d) delete permanently and also wiped dean e) The contents are garbled
Q.125) Format command
a) Formal the CPU b) Format floppy drives only c) Format should be left to the engineers to use d) Formats a disk to receive files e) Format the selected files
Q.126) The ability to read or write each piece of information in a storage device in approximately the same length of time regardless of its locations is
a) Random Access b) Raster scan c) Sequential Access d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.127) Which niche following device can store large amount of data?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) CD ROM d) Zip Desk e) DVD
Q.128) Which of the following is handy to carry yet can store large amounts of data?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) CD ROM d) Zip Desk e) DVD
Q.129) Data (Information) is stored in computers as
a) Directories b) Files c) Floppies d) Matter e) None of these
Q.130) Which storage device is mounted on ‘reels?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) Magnetic Tape d) CD ROM e) None of these
Q.131) What does ‘DOS’ sand for?
a) Disk Originating System b) Dynamic Operating System c) Disk Operating System d) Default Operating System e) None of the above
Q.132) Which of the following are the functions of DOS? I. Controlling the input and output operations. II. Controlling the interaction between the user and the computer. III. Controlling the process of storing and organizing different files.
a) Only I b) Both I and II c) Both II and Ill d) All I, II and III e) None of these
Q.133) What do you understand by the term DOS?
a) Downloading the System Program from the Internet
b) Downloading Operating System
c) The master control program of the computer which helps the computer to manage the files
d) The program which helps computer to check the various peripheral devices e) Both c and d
Q.134) What was the last version of MS-DOS that was released separately?
a) 6.22 b) 6.0 c) 6.11 d) 5.0 e) None of these
Q.135) One of the following statements is incorrect on MS-DOS.
a) MS-DOS is a command driven operating system b) MS-DOS is a Windows driven operating system c) MS-DOS exhibits a system prompt which is normally represented as C:\> d) MS-DOS is made up of external and internal commands e) None of the above
Q.136) What is MS Word?
a) A game b) An Operating System c) Word Processing Software d) Typing tutor software e) None of the above
Q.137) What tool works best for word processing?
a) IBM selectric b) Typewriter c) Computer d) Microsoft Word e) None of these
Q.138) Which of the following companies developed MS Office-2000?
a) Novell b) Corel c) Lotus d) Microsoft e) None of these
Q.139) MS-Word allows creation of ……… type of documents by default?
a) .DOC b) .WPF c) .TXT d) .DOT e) None of these
Q.140) Which of the following is the Word Processor in MS Office?
a) Word Pad b) Word c) Word Perfect d) Word Star e) None of these
Q.141) Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Headers are printed on the top of margins and footers are printed at the bottom of the margins.
b) Headers and footers normally carry information like page number, author name, dates, company names, etc.
c) No Headers and Footers are required in a single page document
d) Word will not allow to have Header and Footer in a single page document e) None of the above
Q.142) Word appears with a wavy red underline signifies
a) month spellings b) words from languages other than English c) word is unable to recognize those spellings d) Italics e) None of the above
Q.143) Table in Word is a grid of rows and columns, with each cell can have
a) text or graphics b) only text c) only graphics d) both e) None of these
Q.144) Borders are used where user wishes
a) to add emphasis to particular paragraph b) to show paragraph in a box c) to surround the paragraph with different styles boxes d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.145) Redo button is used to
a) reverse a redo action b) undo or redo an action depending on users choices c) reverse an undo action d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.146) Which command is used to copy the formula not the value from one data to another
a) Paste b) Paste special c) Ctrl + V d) Hyperlink e) None of these
Q.147) Which shortcut command is used to insert the current time?
a) Alt + T b) Alt + Shift +T c) Shift + T d) Ctrl  + : e) None of these
Q.148) Which shortcut command is used to insert the current date?
a) Alt + Shift + d b) Alt + d c) Ctrl + d d) Ctrl + ; e) None of these
Q.149) Which command is used to calculate the total characters in cell?
a) Len b) Length c) Mid d) Sid e) None of these
Q.150) Name the shortcut key to fill the value of just above cell
a) Ctrl  + D b) Ctrl + E c) Ctrl + T d) Ctrl + O e) None of these
Q.151) Which menu keeps the relationships command?
a) Tools b) Insert c) Format d) View e) None of these
Q.152) Where will we find the referential integrity command?
a) Tools b) View c) Format d) Table e) None of these
Q.153) In order to include picture data type must be
a) OLE b) Hyperlink c) Yes/No d) Picture e) None of these
Q.154) Which option will we use to give heading in the form?
a) Label b) Textbox c) Option Group d) Insert e) None of these
Q.155) By which command we can add records to a table from different tables?
a) Simple query wizard b) Cross tab wizard c) Find match query d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.156) Name an advanced language with which you can create new reports and screens?
a) VATL b) TDL c) DLR d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.157) Name the accounts related with intangible and invisible things which do not have a specified shape
a) Personal Accounts b) Nominal Accounts c) Real Accounts e) Any of these e) None of these
Q.158) Pressing the function keys one enter a payment voucher
a) F4 b) F2 c) F1 d) F5 e) None of these
Q.159) What is the debit account of receipt voucher
a) Ledger Account b) Expense Account c) Cash Account or any bank account d) Any of the above e) None of these
Q.160) Which voucher is used for entering the sale of fixed assets?
a) Sales Voucher b) Payment Voucher c) Receipt Voucher d) Purchase Voucher e) None of these
Q.161) Capital market is the market
a) where company float their shares and debentures b) where capital of various companies air bought and sold c) for long-term funds d) for short tern funds e) None of the above
Q.162) Capital market is divided into
a) long-term market and short-term market b) primary market and secondary market c) shares market and debentures market d) gilts market and bonds marker e) None of the above
Q.163) Primary market
a) is the new issues market where companies issue new securities to the investors b) is the place where only Primary Dealers may transact business c) signifies the market where only long-term bands are traded d) comprises of stock exchanges, banks and financial institutions dealing in primary securities e) None of the above
Q.164) Securities that have already been issued are traded in the
a) primary market b) secondary market c) tertiary market d) global market e) regional market
Q.165) Equity market
a) is the place where only gilt edged securities are traded b) covers both issue and trading of equity shares c) deals In the shares and debentures issued by only government companies d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.166) Debt market
a) covers issue as well as trading of debt instruments (e.g., bonds, debentures etc) b) is a place where only treasury bills art traded c) deals in only government debts d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.167) A company may raise funds from the primary marker by way of
a) public issue b) rights issue c) private placement d) All of these e) None of chess
Q.168) In public issue, companies raise funds by selling securities to
a) Existing shareholders only b) Flls Only c) PDs only d) general public e) None of the above
Q.169) In primary market, the players are
a) private sector companies b) central government and state governments. c) mutual funds d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.170) The primary purpose of capital market is
a) capital formation (i.e., directing savings to long-term investments) b) to raise capital for infrastructure projects c) to raise capital for capital intensive projects like dams power sector etc d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.171) Secondary market consists of
a) all the stock exchanges (including Over the Counter Exchange of India and National Stock Exchange) b) brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents c) Depositories/custodians, Depository Participant (Dps) , financiers and investors d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.172) Stock exchange is a place where
a) traders buy their stocks. b) stocks are exchanged by traders and businessmen through barter system c) securities are traded d) shares are traded c) None of the above
Q.173) Which of the following is the clearing house of Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) ?
a) The National Securities Clearing Corporation ltd. b) Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd. c) Reserve Bank of India d) State Bank of India e) None of the above
Q.174) In India, securitisation companies and reconstruction companies are regulated by the provisions of
a) the Banking Regulation Act. 1949
b) the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002
c) The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
d) The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 e) None of these
Q.175) The Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
a) is the premier export finance institution of the country, set up in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981
b) was launched by the Govt. of India with a mandate, not just to enhance exports from India, but to integrate the country’s foreign trade and investment with the overall economic growth
c) has been both a catalyst and a key player in the promotion of cross border trade and investment
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.176) The EXIM Bank offers
a) Rediscounting of export bills of commercial banks’ SME customers, with usance not exceeding 90 days
b) Refinance of Supplier’s Credit, enabling commercial banks to offer credit to Indian exporters of eligible goods, who in turn extend them credit over 180 days to importers overseas
c) finance for deemed exports to Indian companies
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.177) Which of the following activity is not undertaken by EXIM Bank?
a) Export Credit b) Film Finance c) Financing under PMEGP d) SME and Agriculture Finance e) None of the above
Q.178) EXIM Bank extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to………..to   enable buyers in those countries, to import goods an services from India on deferred credit terms.
a) overseas financial institutions b) regional development banks, c) sovereign governments and other entities overseas d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.179) Under Lines of Credit extended by EXIM Bank
a) Indian exporters can obtain payment of eligible value; from EXIM Bank, without recourse to them, against negotiation of shipping documents
b) a safe mode of non-recourse financing option available to Indian exporters
c) capital goods, plant and machinery, industrial manufactures, consumer durables etc are covered
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.180) Which of the following is the apex institution accredited with all matters concerning policy, planning and operation in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas?
a) CRAFICARD b) SIDBI c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) d) Regional Rural Banks e) None of the above
Q.181) Which university has been conferred with FICCI Education Awards 2015 under the category of “Excellence in Technology for Education Delivery” ?
a) Ashoka University b) IIT Gandhinagar c) Manipal University d) Nirma University e) None of these
Q.182) Girnar Software Pvt. Ltd has appointed which of the following as its chief financial officer (CFO) ?
a) Anurag Jain b) UmeshHora c) AnkitSoni d) ShaileshLakhani e) None of these
Q.183) 5th Heart of Asia conference with theme “Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process” hosted by which country ?
a) Israel b) Afganistan c) Turkey d) Pakistan e) None of these
Q.184) India has signed MoU with which of the following countries on cooperation in the energy sector ?
a) United Arab Emirates b) United Kingdom of Great Britain & Northern Ireland c) United Mexican States d) United States e) None of these
Q.185) London-based market research firm, Ipsos MORI, has conducted a survey “Index of Ignorance” ranked India at which place ?
a) 8th b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) None of these
Q.186) Which country has become the 10th country to ratify the Articles of Agreement (AoA) that will lay the legal framework for AIIB ?
a) Lithuania b) Liberia c) Luxembourg d) Lebanon e) None of these
Q.187) Which IT company has won 2015 Aegis Graham Bell Award for innovation in Internet of Things (IoT) ?
a) Infosys b) Wipro c) TCS d) Accenture e) None of these
Q.188) UNESCO Creative Cities Network has added which Indian city as its new member in Music category ?
a) Patiala b) Varanasi c) Lucknow d) Japiur e) None of these
Q.189) Which corporate company plans to invest in Silicon Valley fund to track innovative startups?
a) Infosys b) b) TCS c) Wipro d) HCl e) None of these
Q.190) ______’s PravinGordhan named as third finance minister.
a) South Africa b) Australia c) Russia d) Singapore e) None of these
Q.191) Which city has been recently added among India’s top five polluted cities?
a) Chennai b) Bangalore c) Ahmedabad d) Delhi e) None of these
Q.192) Which corporate company wins Graham Bell award for IoT solution?
a) Infosys b) HCL c) Wipro d) TCS e) None of these
Q.193) Who is the CEO of Amazon?
a) Sachin Bansal b) Vijay Shekhar Sharma c) KunalBahl d) Jeff Bezos e) None of these
Q.194) With which country, India has agreed to finalise a pact for enhanced intelligence-sharing and exchange of information of terror watch-list?
a) US b) UK c) UAE d) Bangladesh e) None of these
Q.195) No Indian found a place in the top-10 of batsmen’s rankings, even though Ashwin in _____ place and Jadeja in 8th place represented the country in the bowlers’ list.
a) 1st place b) 2nd place c) 3rd place d) 4th place e) None of these
Q.196) Merriam Webster declares ______ as word of the year for 2015.
a) ies b) ism c) es d) ces e) None of these
Q.197) Which Country picks new flag design to challenge current flag?
a) pakistan b) Zimbabwe c) Singapore d) New Zealand e) None of these
Q.198) India ranks ______ on Forbes’s best countries for business list out of 144 nations.
a) 96th b) 97th c) 98th d) 99th e) None of thes
Q.199) At which place, Google will build a new campus?
a) Mumbai b) Agra c) Hyderabad d) Uttar Pradesh e) None of these
Q.200) Jet Airways CEO Cramer Ball resigns. Who will become its acting CEO?
a) NareshGoyal b) SubodhKarnik c) GaurangShetty d) AshwaniLohani e) None of these

Answers

1.(B) 2.(C) 3.(C) 4.(C) 5.(E) 6.(E) 7.(A) 8.(C) 9.(E) 10.(D)
11.(E) 12.(C) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(B) 16.(E) 17.(C) 18.(C) 19.(C) 20.(D)
21.(E) 22.(D) 23.(A) 24.(C) 25.(B) 26.(C) 27.(E) 28.(A) 29.(B) 30.(D)
31.(D) 32.(B) 33.(D) 34.(C) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(C) 38.(A) 39.(E) 40.(B)
41.(C) 42.(E) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(C) 46.(E) 47.(E) 48.(C) 49.(E) 50.(A)
51.(B) 52.(E) 53.(A) 54.(C) 55.(C) 56.(D) 57.(B) 58.(D) 59.(D) 60.(E)
61.(B) 62.(D) 63.(E) 64.(C) 65.(A) 66.(A) 67.(B) 68.(C) 69.(D) 70.(C)
71.(D) 72.(A) 73.(E) 74.(C) 75.(A) 76.(B) 77.(C) 78.(C) 79.(D) 80.(A)
81.(D) 82.(A) 83.(B) 84.(E) 85.(C) 86.(C) 87.(E) 88.(B) 89.(D) 90.(D)
91.(B) 92.(A) 93.(A) 94.(E) 95.(B) 96.(D) 97.(A) 98.(E) 99.(D) 100.(E)
101.(E) 102.(A) 103.(A) 104.(D) 105.(E) 106.(E) 107.(A) 108.(B) 109.(B) 110.(C)
111.(E) 112.(E) 113.(C) 114.(D) 115.(D) 116.(C) 117.(B) 118.(C) 119.(B) 120.(B)
121.(B) 122.(A) 123.(D) 124.(B) 125.(C) 126.(A) 127.(B) 128.(E) 129.(B) 130.(C)
131.(C) 132.(D) 133.(E) 134.(A) 135.(B) 136.(C) 137.(C) 138.(D) 139.(A) 140.(B)
141.(D) 142.(C) 143.(A) 144.(D) 145.(C) 146.(B) 147.(B) 148.(A) 149.(A) 150.(A)
151.(A) 152.(E) 153.(A) 154.(A) 155.(A) 156.(C) 157.(B) 158.(D) 159.(C) 160.(C)
161.(C) 162.(B) 163.(A) 164.(B) 165.(B) 166.(A) 167.(D) 168.(D) 169.(D) 170.(A)
171.(D) 172.(C) 173.(B) 174.(B) 175.(D) 176.(D) 177.(C) 178.(D) 179.(D) 180.(C)
181.(D) 182.(B) 183.(D) 184.(B) 185.(B) 186.(C) 187.(B) 188.(B) 189.(A) 190.(A)
191.(C) 192.(C) 193.(D) 194.(A) 195.(B) 196.(B) 197.(D) 198.(B) 199.(C) 200.(C)