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IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019 – Apply Online for 12075 Posts 

Best IBPS Clerk Coaching in Chandigarh

IBPS Clerk apply online 2019 link activated! As notified in the official notification, the online application for IBPS Clerk has started from 17th September 2019 at IBPS official website https://ibps.in. Candidates who want to apply for IBPS Clerk recruitment 2019 can fill out the IBPS Clerk application form from. The last date of application is 9th October 2019.The job applications for IBPS Jobs 2019 will be accepted online on or before 09 Oct 2019.

Important Dates – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

Starting Date to Apply Online 17 Sep 2019
Closing Date to Apply Online 09 Oct 2019
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training November 2019
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training 25 Nov 2019 to 30 Nov 2019
Download of call letters for Online examination – Preliminary November 2019
Online Examination – Preliminary 07 Dec 2019, 08.12 Dec 2019, 14 Dec 2019 & 21 Dec 2019
Result of Online exam – Preliminary December 2019/ January 2020
Download of Call letter for Online exam – Main January 2020
Online Examination – Main 19 Jan 2020
Provisional Allotment April 2020

Application Fee – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

For all Others ₹600 (inclusive of GST) 
For SC/ ST/ PWD/ EXSM candidates. ₹100 (inclusive of GST)
  • Pay the Examination Fee through Debit Card, Credit Card, Net Banking. Payment Mode: Online

Age Limit – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

For Gen/ UR Candidates 20 years to 28 years as on 01 Sep 2019.
Relaxation ( in Upper age limit ) 05 years for SC/ST candidates 

03 years for OBC candidates

10 years for PWD candidates

Qualification – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

  • i) A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.
  • ii) Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/ Diploma/ Degree in computer operations/ Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/ College/ Institute.

Post Details- IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

State No. of Post
 Andaman & Nicobar Island 14
Andhra Pradesh 777
Arunachal Pradesh 11
Assam 189
Bihar 295
Chandigarh 64
Chhattisgarh 174
Dadra & Nagar Haveli 04
Daman & Diu 02
Delhi 525
Goa 67
Gujarat 600
Haryana 328
Himachal Pradesh 129
Jammu & Kashmir 63
Jharkhnad 141
Karnataka 953
Kerala 349
Lakshadweep 01
Madhya Pradesh 440
Maharashtra 1257
Manipur 11
Meghalaya 07
Mizoram 09
Nagaland 11
Odisha 417
Punducherry 44
Punjab 634
Rajasthan 325
Sikkim 23
Tamil Nadu 1379
Telangana 612
Tripura 53
Uttar Pradesh 1203
Uttarakhnad 117
West Bengal 847
Total 12075

Selection Process – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

On the basis of Preliminary and Main Examination.

How to Apply – IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2019

Read the detailed notification pdf attached below before Apply Online. If you are interested and found yourself eligible for Clerk, click on the apply online link given below. Then, find the appropriate option and fill up the form. You can apply online from from 17 Sep 2019 to 09 Oct 2019.


Please note that the eligibility criteria specified herein are the basic criteria for applying for the post. Candidates must necessarily produce the relevant documents in original and a photocopy in support of their identity and eligibility -pertaining to category, nationality, age, educational qualifications etc as indicated in the online application form. Please note that no change of category will be permitted at any stage after registration of the online application and the result will be processed considering the category under which has been made, subject to guidelines of the Government of India in this regard. Merely applying for CWE/ appearing for and being shortlisted in CWE and/or in the subsequent interview and/ subsequent processes does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be offered employment in any of the Participating Organisations. No request for considering the candidature under any category other than the one in which applied will be entertained

Nationality / Citizenship

A candidate must be either

  • a Citizen of India or
  • a subject of Nepal or
  • a subject of Bhutan or
  • a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1 January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
  • a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Age Limit

Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02 August 1986 and not later than 01 August 1994 (both dates inclusive)

Relaxation of Upper age limit:

Sr. No. Category Age relaxation
1 Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe 5 years
2 Other Backward Classes 3 years
3 Persons With Disability 10 years
4 Ex-Servicemen/Disabled Ex-Servicemen actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years
5 Widows Divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried 9 years
6 Persons ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 1-1-80 to 31-12-89 5 years
7 Persons affected by 1984 riots 5 years
8 Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory, Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only) 5 years

Candidates seeking age relaxation will be required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of Interview and at any subsequent stage of the recruitment process as required by IBPS/ Participating Organization. The following rules applicable to Ex-Servicemen re-employed under the Central government would apply to Ex-Servicemen candidates appearing for the CWE: Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured employment under the Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ will be permitted the benefit of age relaxation as prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group ‘C’/ ‘D’ under the Central Government. However, such candidates will not be eligible for the benefit of reservation for Ex-Servicemen in Central Government jobs. An ex-Servicemen who has once joined a Government job on civil side after availing of the benefits given to him/her as an Ex-Servicemen for his/her re-employment, his/her Ex-servicemen status for the purpose of the re-employment in Government jobs ceases. Candidates who are still in the Armed Forces and desirous of applying under Ex-servicemen category whose date of completion of specific period of engagement (SPE)  is completed one year from the last date for receipt of online application i.e. on or before 09.09.2014 are eligible to apply.

Educational Qualifications:

Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

Computer Literacy:

Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.  Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable. (Some questions may be put at the time of interview to ascertain the candidate’s familiarity with the Official Language of the State/UT) Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-Servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union as on 01.08.2013. Such certificates should be dated on or before 01.08.2013.


(1) Candidate should indicate the percentage obtained in Graduation calculated to the nearest two decimals in the online application. Where CGPA / OGPA is awarded, the same should be converted into percentage and indicate the same in online application.

(2) All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a recognized University / Institution and the result should have been declared on or before 01.08.2013.

(3) Calculation of Percentage: The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s) / year(s) by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honors / optional / additional optional subject, if any.

This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class / Grade is decided on basis of Honors marks only. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 59.99% will be treated as less than 60% and 54.99% will be treated as less than 55%.

Definitions of Ex-Servicemen (EXSM)

Ex-Servicemen (EXSM): 

Only those candidates shall be treated as Ex-servicemen who fulfill the revised definition as laid down in Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Personnel & Administrative Reforms Notification No.36034/5/85 Estt. (SCT) dated 27.01.1986 as amended from time to time.

Disabled Ex-Servicemen (DISXS):

Ex-servicemen who while serving in Armed Forces of the union were disabled in operation against the enemy or in disturbed areas shall be treated as Disabled Ex-servicemen (DISXS).

Dependents Of Servicemen Killed In Action (DXS):

Servicemen killed in the following operations would be deemed to have been killed in action attributable to military service war like operations or Border skirmishes either with Pakistan on cease fire line or any other country. fighting against armed hostiles in a counter insurgency environment  viz: Nagaland, Mizoram, etc. serving with peace keeping mission abroad. laying or clearance of mines including enemy mines as also mine sweeping  operation between one month before and three months after conclusion of an operation. frost bite during actual operations or during the period specified by the Government. dealing with agitating para-military forces personnel. IPKF Personnel killed during the operations in Sri Lanka. For the purpose of availing the concession of reservation for Dependents of Servicemen killed in action the member of the family would include his widow, son, daughter or his near relations who agree to support his family and an affidavit stating that the relaxation is availed by one dependent of Ex-servicemen or not availed by any Dependent of Servicemen killed in action will have to be submitted at the time of interview.The relaxation in upper age limit and in educational qualifications is not available to Dependents of Servicemen.

Note: The Territorial Army Personnel will be treated as ex-servicemen w.e.f. 15.11.1986.

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN & Selection Procedure 2017

The IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN will be divided into 2 parts, consisting of 2 written papers. The Preliminary examination is only qualifying in nature and will not be counted towards the final total. Only those who qualify through Phase I will be eligible to attend Phase II processes. There is no interview & final merit list will be prepared based on the marks scored by students in Mains Examination.

  • All the tests in both the exams will be available bilingually (in English & Hindi) except for English Language.
  • There will be negative marking for wrong answers. One fourth (or 0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty for wrong answers. There is no penalty for unanswered questions.
  • The scores will be normalized to equate the difficulty level of the papers in different slots.
  • You will be required to score a minimum overall cut off in both Prelims and Mains exams.
  • Besides this you will have to score minimum cut off scores in each of the sections in both examinations.
  • However, only the score of the Main examination will be considered for Final Merit Listing.
  • The final score will be scaled to a maximum of 100.

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN for Prelims 2017

Section No. of Questions Max. Marks Duration
English Language 30 30  


Time of 1 Hour

Numerical Ability 35 35
Reasoning Ability 35 35
Total 100 100


IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN – This year IBPS has increased the difficulty level of Mains 2017 Exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains paper consist of 190 Questions of 200 marks in 160 minutes.

No. of  Questions Max. Marks Time
Reasoning & Computer  50 60 45 min
English Language 40 40 35 min
Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 min
General/Financial Awareness 50 50 35 min
TOTAL 190 200 160 min

Know all about IBPS Clerk Recruitment such as exam dates , eligibility criteria, vacancies here:

Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both – Preliminary and Main examination)

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.


The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method.

Scores up to 2 decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations

Cutoff Score:

Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. Depending on number of the State/ UT wise vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview.

Common Interview:

Candidates who have been shortlisted in the main examination for CWE Clerks-V will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Bank in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The centre, address of the venue, time & date of Interview will be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interview call letters from authorised IBPS website www.ibps.in. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc. of interview will not be entertained. However the conducting agencies reserve the right to change the date/ venue/ time/ centre etc. of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date / session / venue / centre / set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any.

The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CWE (Main exam) and interview will be 80:20 respectively. The combined final score of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in the Main Examination of CWE Clerks-V and Interview. Interview score of the candidates failing to secure minimum qualifying marks or otherwise barred from the interview or further process shall not be disclosed.

A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on IBPS website.

Numerical Ability:

Number Systems, Simplification, Number series, Missing/Wrong Number, Chain Rule, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Ages, Mixture and Allegation, Pipes and Cisterns, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Simple & Compound Interest, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Areas and Volumes, Permutations and combinations, Probability.

Data Interpretation:

Pie charts, Bar graphs, Line graphs. Mixed graphs, Case study, Data tables

Logical Reasoning / General Intelligence:
Verbal Reasoning:

Analytical Reasoning, Distance Test, Seating Arrangement, Eligibility test (Decision making), Analogy, Classification, Coding Decoding, Odd Man out, Series, Mathematical Operation, Blood Relationships, Alphabet test, Data Sufficiency, Syllogism, Statements

Non Verbal Reasoning:

No Questions will be asked from this section

English / Hindi:
English (Optional):

Synonyms, Antonyms, Vocabulary, Spotting errors, Idioms and Phrases, Sentence Improvement, Sentence Rearrangement, substitution, Cloze Tests, Inappropriate Usage of Words, Sentence Correction, English Comprehension

Hindi (Optional):

Hindi Grammar & language knowledge, Passage, Synonyms, Antonyms, Spotting Errors, Filling the given Blanks with suitable words

General Awareness:

Banking terms, History of Banking, RBI, Fiscal Monetary Policies, Social Function of Banks, Marketing, World Organizations, National and International Current Events, Important Events, New Appointments, Books and Authors, World’s First Largest Longest, Prizes And Awards, Famous Places and persons, General Geography, General History, Indian Economy, General Polity, General Science, Sports And Recreation, Science And Technology, Days to remember.

Computer Knowledge:

Basic computer fundamentals, History and Future of Computers, Basic Software & Hardware and their functionalities, Computer Operations / Shortcut Keys, Networking, abbreviation used in computers, Microsoft-office, Computer Languages, Internet.

 Blue Print
Pattern Old Pattern New
Year 2011 Dec-11 2012 2013
Topics Sub topic
Numerical Ability Square Roots, Cube roots 2 2
Number System 3 6
Surds & indices 1 1
Fraction 4 3 2
Time & Distance 2 2
Ratio & Proportion 1 1 2
Chain rule 1
Time & Work 1
simplification 12 12 10
Average 1 3 2
Clock 1 1
Pipes & Cisterns
Profit & Loss 2 1 2
Percentage 6 5 3
Simple & compound Interest 2 2 1+1
Number series 6 5 5
Area 4 4 1
Age 1 1 1
Train 1 1 1
Time and distance
Ratio and Proportion
Number System
Profit & loss
Number System
Ratio & proportion
Ratio & proportion
Number System
Number System
Ratio & Proportion
Verbal Reasoning Analogy 3
Letter Series 1 1
Alphabet Test 2 1 3
Number Series 1 1
Number Ranking
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5
Sequential output Tracing 5
Seating Arrangement (two rows) 5 5 5
Seating Arrangement (floor type) 5
Analytical Reasoning 5 5
Blood Relations
Coding & Decoding 2 7 6
Deriving Conclusions 5
Data sufficiency 5 5 3
Directions test 1
Mathematical Operations 5 5 5
Syllogisms 5 5 3
Puzzle Test 5
Non-verbal Reasoning Analogy
Completion of series 10 10
Complete & Incomplete pattern
Cubes & Dice
English Spotting Errors 10 10 12
Synonyms 3 3
Antonyms 2 2
Idioms & Phrase
Sentence Improvement 5 5
Sentence Rearrangement 5
Comprehension 10 10 10
Sentence Completion 5 5 3
Spelling Correction 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10 10
General Knowledge Awards 2 3
Banking 18 15
Books & Authors 1 3
Constitution of India 7 7
Abbreviations 3
Banking Affairs 20
Current Affairs 20
Famous Place 2 3
Days to remember 1 1
Indian Economy 4 4
Sports 4 5
Miscellaneous 3 4
General Science 1
Famous Persons 4 4
Agriculture 1
Computer Knowledge 50 50 40

IBPS Clerk Mains : Model Paper

Q.1) In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’. Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language?
a) si b) pa c) ti d) ke e) None of these
Q.2) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below? C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A AB ?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
Q.3) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letters only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three
Q.4) The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternatives shall replace the questions mark? AD, FC, HK, MJ ?
a) NQ b) OQ c) OR d) MP e) None of these
Q.5) If the letters in the word ‘DOLPHIN’ are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?
a) O b) D c) I d) L e) None of these
Q.6) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) horses b) Dog c) Camel d) Cow e) Fox
Q.7) In a certain code ‘RUST’ is written as ‘QVRU’. How is ‘LINE’ written as that code?
a) KJMF b) KJLI c) KMJF d) KJME e) None of these
Q.8) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘WONDERS’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters are between them in the English alphabet?
a) One b) Two c) three d) Four e) More than three
D.9-10) Study the following information and answer the question given below it. A, B, C, and D live on floors 3 to 6 of the same six storied building.A lives on fourth floors. Only one person live on the floors between A and B. C does not live on a floor above A’s floor.Q.9) Who lives on a floor immediately above B’s floor?
a) A b) C c) D d) A and C e) B lives on top floor
Q.10) Who lives on the fifth floor?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these
D.11-13) Study the arrangement of letters and digits given below and answer the question follows.Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P

Q.11) If each of the consonants in the above arrangement is replaced by the letters preceding it in the alphabetic series how many vowels will be obtained?

a) Nil b) One c) Two d) Three e) Four
Q.12) If first all the digits are arranged in descending order and then the letters are arranged in alphabetic order, the position of how many digits and alphabets will remain unchanged?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these
Q.13) If one is subtracted from each of the members, which of the following will be the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 2 d) 1 e) None of these
Q.14) In a certain code ‘EXPERT’ is written as ‘$Z%$Q5’ and ‘PETROL’ is written as ‘%$5Q#9’. How will ‘EXPLORE’ be written in that code?
a) $Z%9Q#$ b) $Z%9#Q$ c) $Z%9#$Q d) $Z%9$#Q e) None of these
Q.15) Sunil walks towards the east from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the east. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?
a) Cannot be determined b) Two c) Three d) Four e) None of these
D.16-20) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II give n below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers as
a) If the data in statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in statements I alone or in Statements II alone are sufficient to answer the questions
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary the question
Q.16) Who among M, N, P and R is facing North?I. Only one among the four faces North

II. M and N face West while P is facing South

Q.17) Is it afternoon in Delhi?I. The weather is bright, humid and hot in Delhi

II. Thirteen hours ago it was midnight in Delhi

Q.18) How is D related to B?I. D is the sister of B’s only sister’s son

II. D is sister of Q, whose mother has only two siblings-a brother A and a sister B.

Q.19) Is the child holding a yellow coloured flower?I. When the thorn of the flower pricked his finger, the colours of the flood matched that of the flower

II. The child is carrying a rose in his hand

Q.20) Who among P, Q, R, S and T, each having different height, is the tallest? I. T is shorter only than R and SII. Q is not as tall as P and is shorter than R and S
D.21-25) Study the following information and answer the question which follow? (i) K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting along a circular table facing the centre(ii) L is sits between N and O

(iii) K is third to the left of O

(iv) Q is second to the left of M, who is to the immediate left of P

Q.21)  Which is correct position of L with respect to Q?

a) Second to the right b) First to the left c) First to the right d) Third to the right e) None of these
Q.22) Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
a) LO b) MK c) QN d) LN e) None of these
Q.23) Who sits second to the left of L?
a) P b) M c) K d) Q e) None of these
Q.24) Who sits between M and Q?
a) O b) N c) K d) L e) None of these
Q.25) Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the other two?
a) NQL b) PMK c) POK d) MOP e) None of these
D.26-30) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding common known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answers as
a) If only conclusion I is true
b) If only conclusion II is true
c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
e) If both conclusions I and II are true
Q.26) StatementsAll erasers are pencils. Some pencils are pen No pen is a paper.

Conclusions I. Some erasers are papers. II. No paper is an eraser.

Q.27) Statements All boxes are tables. All windows are table All tables are fans Conclusions I. All windows are fans II. Some tables are boxes.
Q.28) Statements Some poles are lights. All lights are bulbsSome bulbs are wires.Conclusions I. Some poles are bulbs. II. Some lights are wires.
Q.29) Statements All buildings are roads. All roads are trucks All trucks are mountains.Conclusions I. Some buildings are mountains. II. Some mountains are roads.
Q.30) Statements Some spoons are bowls. Some pans are both spoons and bowls. Some forks are bowls.ConclusionsI. Some forks are spoons. II. Some pans are forks.
D.31-33) In these questions symbols $, #, % are used for different meanings as follows. $ means ‘Neither greater nor equal to’# means ‘Neither greater nor smaller than’% means ‘Neither smaller nor equal to’In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusion I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers as
a) If only conclusion I is true
b) If only conclusion II is true
c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
e) If both conclusion I and II are true
Q.31) Statements S $ P, P % Q, Q # R
Conclusions I. R $ S             II. R % S
Q.32) Statements A $ B, B # D, D % C
Conclusions I. D $ A           II. B % C
Q.33) Statements M # K, K % P, P $ R
Conclusions     I. R $ M       II. P % M
D.34- 35) Read the following  information carefully and answer the question followIf ‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’

If ‘A+B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’If ‘A÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’

If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

Q.34) In the expression ‘P+Q×R’ how is R related to P

a) Daughter b) Brother c) Father d) Sister e) None of these
Q.35) In the expression ‘P÷Q-T’ how is T related to P?
a) Mother b) Sister c) Brother d) Either brother or sister e) None of these
D.36-40) Read the following information and choose the right alternate for the questions give, afterwards.The sports week of an institute was organized from 19th to 26th of a month, 19th being a Wednesday. During that period six-games-Cricket c) , Badminton b) , Table Tennis (T) Kho-Kho (K) , Hockey (H) and Football (F) were played, one game on each day. Further information is

(i) Hockey was not played on the closing day, i.e., on 26th.

(ii) Table Tennis was played on the previous day of Cricket.

(iii) Football was not played either on Wednesday or Saturday.

(iv) No game was played on Thursday and Sunday.

(v) Kho-Kho was played on Monday.

(vi) There was a gap of two days between Cricket and Football.

Q.36) The sports week started with which game?

a) Table Tennis b) Cricket c) Kho-Kho d) Hockey e) None of these
Q.37) How many days gap is there between Hockey and Football?
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Two e) None of these
Q.38) Which pair of games was played on Wednesday?
a) Hockey and Badminton b) Hockey and Cricket c) Cricket and Table Tennis d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
Q.39) Which game exactly precedes Kho-Kho?
a) Hockey b) Football c) Cricket d) Table Tennis e) No game precedes
Q.40) Table Tennis follows which game?
a) Hockey b) Cricket c) Table Tennis d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
D.41-50) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?Q.41) 3.8×5.6×11.5-31.653=?
a) 234.880 b) 265.404 c) 213.067 d) 256.072 e) None of these
a) 415 b) 384 c) 492 d) 346 e) None of these
Q.43) 93% of 456=?
a) 435.06 b) 419.02 c) 443.04 d) 424.08 e) None of these
Q.44) 8.2×?=465.76
a) 56.8 b) 48.6 c) 62.4 e) 74.2 e) None of these
Q.45) 1485÷(44×0.75)=?
a) 33 b) 56 c) 45 e) 67 e) None of these
Q.46) 126÷8÷0.4=?
a) 36 b) 42 c) 48 d) 54 e) None of these
Q.47) 9358-5086-2384=?
a) 1788 b) 1988 c) 2188 d) 2388 e) None of these
a)    image005 b)    image007 c)            image009 d)            image011 e) None of these
a) 360000 b) 60000 c) 3600 d) 6000 e) None of these
Q.50) 23.35+ 33.25 + 325.52=?
a) 382.12 b) 387.14 c) 391.92 d) 404.86 e) None of these
D.51-55) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note you are not expected to calculate the expect value)Q.51) 11.5% of 666 ×18.3%of 888=?
a) 18338 b) 12446 c) 10520 d) 11542 e) 15608
Q.52) 2898÷ 22÷2 =?
a) 43 b) 52 c) 278 d) 165 e) 66
Q.53) 18.999×12.005×25.998=?
a) 5930 b) 4860 c) 4590 d) 3320 e) 6470
Q.54) image015?
a) 29 b) 9 c) 25 d) 17 e) 13
a) 19 b) 4 c) 11 d) 15 e) 6
D.56-60) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?Q.56) 27, 23, 21, 17, 15, ?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11 e) None of these
Q.57) 5, 11, 24, 51, ?, 217, 440
a) 105 b) 106 c) 107 d) 108 e) None of these
Q.58) 11, 13, 17, 19, ?, 29, 31
a) 25 b) 26 c) 27 d) 23 e) None of these
Q.59) 2, 5, 3, 8, 5, 11, 6, ? 9
a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15 e) None of these
Q.60) 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, ?, 128
a) 68 b) 65 c) 66 d) 67 e) None of these
Q.61) The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number?
a) 83 b) 79 c) 81 d) 77 e) None of these
Q.62) The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D?
a) 11440 b) 11024 c) 10608 d) 11232 e) None of these
Q.63) The owner of a cell phone shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone?
a) Rs.5845 b) Rs.6750 c) Rs.5900 d) Rs.6925 e) None of these
Q.64) If  image019is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number?
a) 69 b) 59 c) 89 d) 79 e) None of these
Q.65) If an amount of Rs.85602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each persons get?
a) Rs.2594 b) Rs.2954 c) Rs.2549 d) Rs.2495 e) None of these
Q.66) 43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number?
a) 416 b) 429 c) 403 d) 384 e) None of these
Q.67) If the fractions image021 and image023 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth?
a)image023 b)image025 c)image027 d)image029 e) None of these
Q.68) If image031 is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 10768. What is the number?
a) 46 b) 2304 c) 48 d) 2116 e) None of these
Q.69) The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, Then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school?
a) 49: 52 b) 51:50 c) 50: 51 d) 52: 49 e) None of these
Q.70) Sumit invests Rs.4762, which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is the monthly income?
a) Rs. 28572 b) Rs. 23810 c) Rs.19048 d) Rs.14285 e) None of these
Q.71) Ms.Vishakha deposits an amount of Rs.35800 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 15% per annum for 4 yr. What total amount will Ms.Vishakha get at the end of 4 yr
a) Rs. 45680 b) Rs.39880 c) Rs.21480 d) Rs.57280 e) None of these
Q.72) There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred?
a) 603 b) 402 c) 804 d) 703 e) None of these
Q.73) In an examination Shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination?
a) 83 b) 65 c) 82 d) 78 e) 70
Q.74) What should be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs.8930 at the rate of 8% per annum after 5 yr?
a) Rs. 5413 b) Rs.2678 c) Rs. 3572 d) Rs.4752 e) None of these
Q.75) The cost of 12 chairs and 15 tables is Rs. 58968. What is the cost of 4 chairs and 5 tables?
a) Rs. 19656 b) Rs. 29484 c) Rs.39312 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
Directions (76-80): Study the following graph carefully and answer thequestions that follow:

The graph given below represents the number of users of two broadband services

A and B across 5 cities P, Q, R, S and T.


Q.76) What is the total number of users of brand B across all give cities together?
a) 2700 b) 3000 c) 3100 d) 2900 e) 3200
Q.77) The number of users of brand A in city T is what percent of the number of users of brand B in city Q?
a) 150 b) 110 c) 140 d) 160 e) 120
Q.78) What is the average number of users of brand A across all five cities together?
a) 560 b) 570 c) 580 d) 590 e) 550
Q.79) What is the difference between the total number of users of brand A and B together in city R and the ottal number of users of brand A and B together in city P?
a) 170 b) 140 c) 130 d) 150 e) 160
Q.80) What is the respective ratio of the number users of brand A in city P to the number of users of brand B in city S?
a) 5 : 7 b) 4 : 7 c) 2 : 5 d) 3 : 4 e) 5 : 6
D.81-95) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
          “Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, “You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it?”
          “Because” Sean replied, “I have a good feed every night at the emperor’s orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to last a fortnight”.
“Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke’s habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
          At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits was excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor’s men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook him as the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilesslybefore ting him free.
Q.81) How did old Sean manage to meet his food requirements?
a) By buying food from the market b) His nephew Luke took care of his requirements c) Luke brought fruits from the emperor’s orchard for Sean d) He picked up fruits from the emperor’s orchard e) The emperor provided him with ample supply of fruits
Q.82) Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
a) Sean was a poor and suffering man b) Luke came to know about the orchard from his uncle c) Sean initially hesitated to take his nephew along d) Luke was finally- set free e) Both Sean and Luke collected fruits from Emperor’s orchard
Q.83) Why was Sean reluctant to take Luke along?
a) Because he was a selfish man b) He feared that Luke’s reaction may alert the Emperor’s men c) Because Luke could harm him d) He wanted to bring fruits for Luke himself e) He knew Luke was a greedy person
Q.84) How often did Sean visit the emperor’s orchard?
a) Daily b) Once a month c) In a period of two weeks d) Never, his nephew Luke brought fruits for him e) Everyday during midnight
Q.85) Luke remained behind at the orchard because he
a) was greedy and wanted to collect more fruits b) waited for the Emperor’s men to arrest him c) lost his composure and started expressing his feelings loudly d) had waited for his uncle to return e) could not move in the dark
Q.86) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Luke did not take good care of his Uncle b) The Emperor was a wicked man c) Lack of self-control had put Luke into trouble d) Orchards are highly guarded areas and not meant for the public e) Luke had a habit of speaking loudly
Q.87) What does “bird of passage”; mean in the context of the given passage?
a) There was a bird in the orchard b) Bird’s song alerted Emperor’s men c) Other people also stole from orchards d) Emperor knew him personally e) He did not visit orchard regularly
Q.88) Why did Sean leave immediately after collecting the fruits?
a) He feared that the bird’s song would awaken the Emperor b) To avoid getting caught by the Emperor’s men c) He saw the Emperor’s men approaching d) He wanted to leave Luke alone e) He was afraid of the dark
Q.89) The Emperor’s men seized Luke immediately because he
a) was a potential threat to the kingdom b) did not take care of his uncle c) often lost self-control d) was suspected for damaging the Emperor’s orchard e) was a good friend of the Emperor
Q.90) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Reiterated
a) pleaded b) regurgitated c) protested d) repeated e) recapitulated
Q.91) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Extreme
a) end b) high c) severe d) serious e) moderate
Q.92) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Reluctant
a) disinclined b) opposed c) against d) resistant e) None of these
Q.93) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Accompany
a) go with b) together c) synchronously d) along e) harmoniously
Q.94) Choose the word which s most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Pounded
a) weighed b) released c) paid d) attended e) caressed
Q.95) Choose the word which s most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Mercilessly
a) calmly b) compassionately c) mildly d) forgivably e) sympathetically
D.96-105) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which lifts the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
          An old couple was asking for water on the pavement outside an office. They (96) to be pitifully poor. When asked where they were (97) to, they told that they had come from a (98) village to get their cataract-afflicted eyes operated. But they were stranded. The stranger who had (99) them there with a promise of treatment was (100) . Humanely, few staff members of the office arranged for their(101) for a night and next day (102) to a reputed hospital, whose eye surgeon had helped (103) poor patients. He examined his new patients and got them admitted. The surgeon (104) picked beggars from the streets and operated them for free. The old couple stayed in the hospital for a week and came out with a new (105) .They were now happier and healthier.
Q.96) a) wanted b) apparently c) wished d) appeared e) liked
Q.97)           a) headed b) journey c) sitting d) footing e) tourist
Q.98) a) nearing b) residential c) close d) distantly e) nearby
Q.99) a) took b) asked c) bring d) brought e) walked
Q.100) a) forgotten b) untractable c) untraceable d) retraceable e) missed
Q.101) a) refuge b) asylum c) living d) livelihood e) shelter
Q.102) a) took b) transferred c) bought d) lead e) bring
Q.103) a) many b) greater c) quiet d) much e) lot
Q.104) a) timely b) repeatedly c) unwillingly d) constantly e) continuously
Q.105) a) happy b) insight c) site d) sense e) sight
D.106-110) Which of the phrases a) ,b) , c) and d) given below should replace the phrase given in boldin the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as answer.
Q.106) Balding is much more common in males than females.
a) at males than females b) in males then females c) at males then females d) in males against females e) No correction required
Q.107)Sun is the force before all natural phenomena.
a) behind all natural b) responsible all natural c) at all natural d) pushing all natural e) No correction required
Q.108) Many healthy people are been infected by the virus.
a) are having infected b) are being infected c) are in infection d) were bearing infected e) No correction required
Q.109) It is predicted that oil reserves will finished by 2034.
a) reserves are finished b) reserves would finish c) reserves have finish d) reserves should finish e) No correction required
Q.110) The standard of English in the schools are highly uneven
a) are being uneven b) are often uneven c) is highly uneven d) is high unevenly e) No correction required
D.111-115) Rearrange the following six sentencesa) ,b) , c) , d) , e) and f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer questions given below them.
A. Lack of infrastructural support has been one reason.
B. Therefore number of people willing to learn the art has dropped
C.Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art of Kerala.
D. There have been several factors responsible for it.
E. It is now considered a dying form of art.
F. Also, the government has not taken any initiative to preserve it.
Q.111) Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) F b) e c) d d) b e) a
Q.112) Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) a b) c c) d d) e) e) F
Q.113) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) a b) e c) c d) d e) e
Q.114) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) c b) a c) b d) e e) F
Q.115) Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) e b) F c) b d) d e) a
D.116-120) Read each sentence to find out whether these is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
Q.116) The principle that (A) / a pen is mightier (B) / then a sword (C) / was known to early Greeks. (D) / No error (E)
Q.117) Martha missed her slog (A) / who died of a (B) / skin infection at a (C) / very young age. (D) / No error (E)
Q.118) There was such (A) / a crowd that (B) / he would not (C) / find his brother.(D) / No error (E)
Q.119) Having managed de (A) / team of two (B) /years, he knew (C) / his players well (D) / No error (E)
Q.120) Because of heavy (A) / rains the trains (B) / are disable to (C) / run on time. (D) / No error (E)
Q.121) What is Web casting?
a) Casting a movie /TV star in a role on the ww b) Transmitting the Sec and audio on the Internet c) Playing of music on the Internet d) Searching on the Web e) None of the above
Q.122) The date command at the DOS prompt enables you to
a) view the date and time b) change the date c) change the date and time d) change the day only e) None of the above
Q.123) What are batch files in relation to computer?
a) They begin with the letter BAT b) They help you to keep files in batches c) They help you to keep directories in batches d) They help you to club a group of statements and run them one after together e) They help you to keep both directories and files in batches
Q.124) When you delete files in windows operating system they are
a) delete permanently b) put in recycle bin c) wiped thoroughly so that nobody is able to recover the file back d) delete permanently and also wiped dean e) The contents are garbled
Q.125) Format command
a) Formal the CPU b) Format floppy drives only c) Format should be left to the engineers to use d) Formats a disk to receive files e) Format the selected files
Q.126) The ability to read or write each piece of information in a storage device in approximately the same length of time regardless of its locations is
a) Random Access b) Raster scan c) Sequential Access d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.127) Which niche following device can store large amount of data?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) CD ROM d) Zip Desk e) DVD
Q.128) Which of the following is handy to carry yet can store large amounts of data?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) CD ROM d) Zip Desk e) DVD
Q.129) Data (Information) is stored in computers as
a) Directories b) Files c) Floppies d) Matter e) None of these
Q.130) Which storage device is mounted on ‘reels?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) Magnetic Tape d) CD ROM e) None of these
Q.131) What does ‘DOS’ sand for?
a) Disk Originating System b) Dynamic Operating System c) Disk Operating System d) Default Operating System e) None of the above
Q.132) Which of the following are the functions of DOS? I. Controlling the input and output operations. II. Controlling the interaction between the user and the computer. III. Controlling the process of storing and organizing different files.
a) Only I b) Both I and II c) Both II and Ill d) All I, II and III e) None of these
Q.133) What do you understand by the term DOS?
a) Downloading the System Program from the Internet
b) Downloading Operating System
c) The master control program of the computer which helps the computer to manage the files
d) The program which helps computer to check the various peripheral devices e) Both c and d
Q.134) What was the last version of MS-DOS that was released separately?
a) 6.22 b) 6.0 c) 6.11 d) 5.0 e) None of these
Q.135) One of the following statements is incorrect on MS-DOS.
a) MS-DOS is a command driven operating system b) MS-DOS is a Windows driven operating system c) MS-DOS exhibits a system prompt which is normally represented as C:\> d) MS-DOS is made up of external and internal commands e) None of the above
Q.136) What is MS Word?
a) A game b) An Operating System c) Word Processing Software d) Typing tutor software e) None of the above
Q.137) What tool works best for word processing?
a) IBM selectric b) Typewriter c) Computer d) Microsoft Word e) None of these
Q.138) Which of the following companies developed MS Office-2000?
a) Novell b) Corel c) Lotus d) Microsoft e) None of these
Q.139) MS-Word allows creation of ……… type of documents by default?
a) .DOC b) .WPF c) .TXT d) .DOT e) None of these
Q.140) Which of the following is the Word Processor in MS Office?
a) Word Pad b) Word c) Word Perfect d) Word Star e) None of these
Q.141) Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Headers are printed on the top of margins and footers are printed at the bottom of the margins.
b) Headers and footers normally carry information like page number, author name, dates, company names, etc.
c) No Headers and Footers are required in a single page document
d) Word will not allow to have Header and Footer in a single page document e) None of the above
Q.142) Word appears with a wavy red underline signifies
a) month spellings b) words from languages other than English c) word is unable to recognize those spellings d) Italics e) None of the above
Q.143) Table in Word is a grid of rows and columns, with each cell can have
a) text or graphics b) only text c) only graphics d) both e) None of these
Q.144) Borders are used where user wishes
a) to add emphasis to particular paragraph b) to show paragraph in a box c) to surround the paragraph with different styles boxes d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.145) Redo button is used to
a) reverse a redo action b) undo or redo an action depending on users choices c) reverse an undo action d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.146) Which command is used to copy the formula not the value from one data to another
a) Paste b) Paste special c) Ctrl + V d) Hyperlink e) None of these
Q.147) Which shortcut command is used to insert the current time?
a) Alt + T b) Alt + Shift +T c) Shift + T d) Ctrl  + : e) None of these
Q.148) Which shortcut command is used to insert the current date?
a) Alt + Shift + d b) Alt + d c) Ctrl + d d) Ctrl + ; e) None of these
Q.149) Which command is used to calculate the total characters in cell?
a) Len b) Length c) Mid d) Sid e) None of these
Q.150) Name the shortcut key to fill the value of just above cell
a) Ctrl  + D b) Ctrl + E c) Ctrl + T d) Ctrl + O e) None of these
Q.151) Which menu keeps the relationships command?
a) Tools b) Insert c) Format d) View e) None of these
Q.152) Where will we find the referential integrity command?
a) Tools b) View c) Format d) Table e) None of these
Q.153) In order to include picture data type must be
a) OLE b) Hyperlink c) Yes/No d) Picture e) None of these
Q.154) Which option will we use to give heading in the form?
a) Label b) Textbox c) Option Group d) Insert e) None of these
Q.155) By which command we can add records to a table from different tables?
a) Simple query wizard b) Cross tab wizard c) Find match query d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.156) Name an advanced language with which you can create new reports and screens?
a) VATL b) TDL c) DLR d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.157) Name the accounts related with intangible and invisible things which do not have a specified shape
a) Personal Accounts b) Nominal Accounts c) Real Accounts e) Any of these e) None of these
Q.158) Pressing the function keys one enter a payment voucher
a) F4 b) F2 c) F1 d) F5 e) None of these
Q.159) What is the debit account of receipt voucher
a) Ledger Account b) Expense Account c) Cash Account or any bank account d) Any of the above e) None of these
Q.160) Which voucher is used for entering the sale of fixed assets?
a) Sales Voucher b) Payment Voucher c) Receipt Voucher d) Purchase Voucher e) None of these
Q.161) Capital market is the market
a) where company float their shares and debentures b) where capital of various companies air bought and sold c) for long-term funds d) for short tern funds e) None of the above
Q.162) Capital market is divided into
a) long-term market and short-term market b) primary market and secondary market c) shares market and debentures market d) gilts market and bonds marker e) None of the above
Q.163) Primary market
a) is the new issues market where companies issue new securities to the investors b) is the place where only Primary Dealers may transact business c) signifies the market where only long-term bands are traded d) comprises of stock exchanges, banks and financial institutions dealing in primary securities e) None of the above
Q.164) Securities that have already been issued are traded in the
a) primary market b) secondary market c) tertiary market d) global market e) regional market
Q.165) Equity market
a) is the place where only gilt edged securities are traded b) covers both issue and trading of equity shares c) deals In the shares and debentures issued by only government companies d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.166) Debt market
a) covers issue as well as trading of debt instruments (e.g., bonds, debentures etc) b) is a place where only treasury bills art traded c) deals in only government debts d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.167) A company may raise funds from the primary marker by way of
a) public issue b) rights issue c) private placement d) All of these e) None of chess
Q.168) In public issue, companies raise funds by selling securities to
a) Existing shareholders only b) Flls Only c) PDs only d) general public e) None of the above
Q.169) In primary market, the players are
a) private sector companies b) central government and state governments. c) mutual funds d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.170) The primary purpose of capital market is
a) capital formation (i.e., directing savings to long-term investments) b) to raise capital for infrastructure projects c) to raise capital for capital intensive projects like dams power sector etc d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.171) Secondary market consists of
a) all the stock exchanges (including Over the Counter Exchange of India and National Stock Exchange) b) brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents c) Depositories/custodians, Depository Participant (Dps) , financiers and investors d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.172) Stock exchange is a place where
a) traders buy their stocks. b) stocks are exchanged by traders and businessmen through barter system c) securities are traded d) shares are traded c) None of the above
Q.173) Which of the following is the clearing house of Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) ?
a) The National Securities Clearing Corporation ltd. b) Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd. c) Reserve Bank of India d) State Bank of India e) None of the above
Q.174) In India, securitisation companies and reconstruction companies are regulated by the provisions of
a) the Banking Regulation Act. 1949
b) the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002
c) The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
d) The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 e) None of these
Q.175) The Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
a) is the premier export finance institution of the country, set up in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981
b) was launched by the Govt. of India with a mandate, not just to enhance exports from India, but to integrate the country’s foreign trade and investment with the overall economic growth
c) has been both a catalyst and a key player in the promotion of cross border trade and investment
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.176) The EXIM Bank offers
a) Rediscounting of export bills of commercial banks’ SME customers, with usance not exceeding 90 days
b) Refinance of Supplier’s Credit, enabling commercial banks to offer credit to Indian exporters of eligible goods, who in turn extend them credit over 180 days to importers overseas
c) finance for deemed exports to Indian companies
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.177) Which of the following activity is not undertaken by EXIM Bank?
a) Export Credit b) Film Finance c) Financing under PMEGP d) SME and Agriculture Finance e) None of the above
Q.178) EXIM Bank extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to………..to   enable buyers in those countries, to import goods an services from India on deferred credit terms.
a) overseas financial institutions b) regional development banks, c) sovereign governments and other entities overseas d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.179) Under Lines of Credit extended by EXIM Bank
a) Indian exporters can obtain payment of eligible value; from EXIM Bank, without recourse to them, against negotiation of shipping documents
b) a safe mode of non-recourse financing option available to Indian exporters
c) capital goods, plant and machinery, industrial manufactures, consumer durables etc are covered
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.180) Which of the following is the apex institution accredited with all matters concerning policy, planning and operation in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas?
a) CRAFICARD b) SIDBI c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) d) Regional Rural Banks e) None of the above
Q.181) Which university has been conferred with FICCI Education Awards 2015 under the category of “Excellence in Technology for Education Delivery” ?
a) Ashoka University b) IIT Gandhinagar c) Manipal University d) Nirma University e) None of these
Q.182) Girnar Software Pvt. Ltd has appointed which of the following as its chief financial officer (CFO) ?
a) Anurag Jain b) UmeshHora c) AnkitSoni d) ShaileshLakhani e) None of these
Q.183) 5th Heart of Asia conference with theme “Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process” hosted by which country ?
a) Israel b) Afganistan c) Turkey d) Pakistan e) None of these
Q.184) India has signed MoU with which of the following countries on cooperation in the energy sector ?
a) United Arab Emirates b) United Kingdom of Great Britain & Northern Ireland c) United Mexican States d) United States e) None of these
Q.185) London-based market research firm, Ipsos MORI, has conducted a survey “Index of Ignorance” ranked India at which place ?
a) 8th b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) None of these
Q.186) Which country has become the 10th country to ratify the Articles of Agreement (AoA) that will lay the legal framework for AIIB ?
a) Lithuania b) Liberia c) Luxembourg d) Lebanon e) None of these
Q.187) Which IT company has won 2015 Aegis Graham Bell Award for innovation in Internet of Things (IoT) ?
a) Infosys b) Wipro c) TCS d) Accenture e) None of these
Q.188) UNESCO Creative Cities Network has added which Indian city as its new member in Music category ?
a) Patiala b) Varanasi c) Lucknow d) Japiur e) None of these
Q.189) Which corporate company plans to invest in Silicon Valley fund to track innovative startups?
a) Infosys b) b) TCS c) Wipro d) HCl e) None of these
Q.190) ______’s PravinGordhan named as third finance minister.
a) South Africa b) Australia c) Russia d) Singapore e) None of these
Q.191) Which city has been recently added among India’s top five polluted cities?
a) Chennai b) Bangalore c) Ahmedabad d) Delhi e) None of these
Q.192) Which corporate company wins Graham Bell award for IoT solution?
a) Infosys b) HCL c) Wipro d) TCS e) None of these
Q.193) Who is the CEO of Amazon?
a) Sachin Bansal b) Vijay Shekhar Sharma c) KunalBahl d) Jeff Bezos e) None of these
Q.194) With which country, India has agreed to finalise a pact for enhanced intelligence-sharing and exchange of information of terror watch-list?
a) US b) UK c) UAE d) Bangladesh e) None of these
Q.195) No Indian found a place in the top-10 of batsmen’s rankings, even though Ashwin in _____ place and Jadeja in 8th place represented the country in the bowlers’ list.
a) 1st place b) 2nd place c) 3rd place d) 4th place e) None of these
Q.196) Merriam Webster declares ______ as word of the year for 2015.
a) ies b) ism c) es d) ces e) None of these
Q.197) Which Country picks new flag design to challenge current flag?
a) pakistan b) Zimbabwe c) Singapore d) New Zealand e) None of these
Q.198) India ranks ______ on Forbes’s best countries for business list out of 144 nations.
a) 96th b) 97th c) 98th d) 99th e) None of thes
Q.199) At which place, Google will build a new campus?
a) Mumbai b) Agra c) Hyderabad d) Uttar Pradesh e) None of these
Q.200) Jet Airways CEO Cramer Ball resigns. Who will become its acting CEO?
a) NareshGoyal b) SubodhKarnik c) GaurangShetty d) AshwaniLohani e) None of these


1.(B) 2.(C) 3.(C) 4.(C) 5.(E) 6.(E) 7.(A) 8.(C) 9.(E) 10.(D)
11.(E) 12.(C) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(B) 16.(E) 17.(C) 18.(C) 19.(C) 20.(D)
21.(E) 22.(D) 23.(A) 24.(C) 25.(B) 26.(C) 27.(E) 28.(A) 29.(B) 30.(D)
31.(D) 32.(B) 33.(D) 34.(C) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(C) 38.(A) 39.(E) 40.(B)
41.(C) 42.(E) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(C) 46.(E) 47.(E) 48.(C) 49.(E) 50.(A)
51.(B) 52.(E) 53.(A) 54.(C) 55.(C) 56.(D) 57.(B) 58.(D) 59.(D) 60.(E)
61.(B) 62.(D) 63.(E) 64.(C) 65.(A) 66.(A) 67.(B) 68.(C) 69.(D) 70.(C)
71.(D) 72.(A) 73.(E) 74.(C) 75.(A) 76.(B) 77.(C) 78.(C) 79.(D) 80.(A)
81.(D) 82.(A) 83.(B) 84.(E) 85.(C) 86.(C) 87.(E) 88.(B) 89.(D) 90.(D)
91.(B) 92.(A) 93.(A) 94.(E) 95.(B) 96.(D) 97.(A) 98.(E) 99.(D) 100.(E)
101.(E) 102.(A) 103.(A) 104.(D) 105.(E) 106.(E) 107.(A) 108.(B) 109.(B) 110.(C)
111.(E) 112.(E) 113.(C) 114.(D) 115.(D) 116.(C) 117.(B) 118.(C) 119.(B) 120.(B)
121.(B) 122.(A) 123.(D) 124.(B) 125.(C) 126.(A) 127.(B) 128.(E) 129.(B) 130.(C)
131.(C) 132.(D) 133.(E) 134.(A) 135.(B) 136.(C) 137.(C) 138.(D) 139.(A) 140.(B)
141.(D) 142.(C) 143.(A) 144.(D) 145.(C) 146.(B) 147.(B) 148.(A) 149.(A) 150.(A)
151.(A) 152.(E) 153.(A) 154.(A) 155.(A) 156.(C) 157.(B) 158.(D) 159.(C) 160.(C)
161.(C) 162.(B) 163.(A) 164.(B) 165.(B) 166.(A) 167.(D) 168.(D) 169.(D) 170.(A)
171.(D) 172.(C) 173.(B) 174.(B) 175.(D) 176.(D) 177.(C) 178.(D) 179.(D) 180.(C)
181.(D) 182.(B) 183.(D) 184.(B) 185.(B) 186.(C) 187.(B) 188.(B) 189.(A) 190.(A)
191.(C) 192.(C) 193.(D) 194.(A) 195.(B) 196.(B) 197.(D) 198.(B) 199.(C) 200.(C)