Syllabus for SBI Associate Bank Clerk will be mostly same as SBI Clerk examination

1. Quantitative Aptitude

Arithmetic: Numbers, Simplification, Root, Average, Surds and Indices, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Ratio and Proportion, Partnership, Chain Rule, Time and Work, Pipes and Cisterns, Time and Distance, Problems on Trains, Boats and Streams, Allegation, Simple Interest ,Compound Interest, Stocks and Shares, Clocks, Logarithm, Menstruation, Volume and Surface Area, Permutation and Combination, Probability, Heights and Distances.

Data interpretation:

Line Graphs, Bar Graphs, Pie Charts and Tabulation.

2. Reasoning Ability

Alphabet Test, Number Series Test, Odd Man Out,  Analogy, Coding & decoding, Blood relations, Sitting arrangements, Direction test, Series completion, syllogisms, Decision making, Statement and Conclusion and Data Sufficiency

3. General English

Vocabulary: Synonyms, Antonyms, Homonyms, Word Formation, Sentence Completion.

Comprehension: Theme detection, Deriving Conclusion, Passage Completion.

Error Detection and Rearrangement: Passage Correction, Sentence Detection, Spelling.

Grammar: Active Passive voice, Direct Indirect Speech.

General Usage: Idioms and Phrases.

4.  General Awareness

Knowledge of Current Affairs, Sports, History, Geography, Culture, Indian Constitution, Scientific Research, India and its  neighboring countries.

5. Marketing Aptitude

Marketing Basics, Terminology and Abbreviations, Marketing Concept, Marketing Types, Marketing Mix, Concept of Buying & Selling, SWOT Analysis, CRM, Market Research, Market Information, Market Segmentation, Branding, Marketing Research.

6. Computer Awareness

Basic Computer Terminology, Abbreviations, Hard ware and Software basics, Operating Systems, Shortcut Keys, Internet, Information Security, MS Office, MS Word, MS Excel, MS Power Point, MS access, internet & networks, Basic security concepts, Latest technologies

 Blue Print

Subjects Year 23 Nov 2010 30 Nov 2010 2011
Quantitative Aptitude Percentage and of 5 5 3
Addition, subtraction 2 2
Power 1
Division 1 1
Multiplication
Multi Division 3 3 1
Square, Cube and Roots 1 8
Number Series 5 5 5
Number System 2 1 8
Average 2 3 1
Simple and compound Interest 1 1 1
Ratio & Proportion 2 2
Percentage 2 2 4
Fraction 4 4 1
Time and Work 1 1 1
Trains 1 1 3
Profit and Loss 1 1 1
Chain Rule 1 1
Partnership 1
Age 1 1 2
DI Case Studies
DI (Table) 5 5  
Data Interpretation (Bar)
Reasoning Analogy 2 2 2
Number Ranking 1 1
Alphabet Test 2 2 2
Blood Relation 1
Coding-Decoding 8 7 7
Seating Arrangement 5 5  
Letter Series 2 2 1
Analytical Reasoning 6
Mathematical Operations 5 5  
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5 4  
Syllogism 5 5 10
Directions Test 1
Data Sufficiency 6
Non-Verbal Series 5 5 5
English Comprehension 10 10 10
Synonyms 3 3 3
Antonyms 2 2 2
Spotting Errors 15
Idiom and Phrase 5 5  
Spelling Correction 5 5  
Sentence Completion 5
Substitutions
Sentence Rearrangement 5 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10  
General Knowledge Banking 10 8 17
Books and Authors 3 2 3
Constitutions of India 7 8 5
History 2 2
Marketing 1
Indian Economy 4 6 4
Famous Places
Geography 2
Sports 5 3
Famous Personalities 4
Awards 5 3  
Research stations and Institutions in India
Miscellaneous (Space), Projects 1 1 2
General Science 2 2
Agriculture 2 2
Abbreviations
Days to Remember 1
Inventions
Current Affairs – Famous Personality, Famous Place 3
Computer Knowledge Database 2 40
Network 4 2
Hardware 3 6
Software 3 4
Basics of computer 6 6
Internet 1 1
Marketing Aptitude 21 21

Please note that the eligibility criteria specified herein are the basic criteria for applying for the post. Candidates must necessarily produce the relevant documents in original and a photocopy in support of their identity and eligibility -pertaining to category, nationality, age, educational qualifications etc as indicated in the online application form. Please note that no change of category will be permitted at any stage after registration of the online application and the result will be processed considering the category under which has been made, subject to guidelines of the Government of India in this regard. Merely applying for CWE/ appearing for and being shortlisted in CWE and/or in the subsequent interview and/ subsequent processes does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be offered employment in any of the Participating Organisations. No request for considering the candidature under any category other than the one in which applied will be entertained

Nationality / Citizenship

A candidate must be either

  • a Citizen of India or
  • a subject of Nepal or
  • a subject of Bhutan or
  • a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1 January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
  • a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Age Limit

Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02 August 1986 and not later than 01 August 1994 (both dates inclusive)

Relaxation of Upper age limit:

Sr. No. Category Age relaxation
1 Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe 5 years
2 Other Backward Classes 3 years
3 Persons With Disability 10 years
4 Ex-Servicemen/Disabled Ex-Servicemen actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years
5 Widows Divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried 9 years
6 Persons ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 1-1-80 to 31-12-89 5 years
7 Persons affected by 1984 riots 5 years
8 Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory, Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only) 5 years
NOTE:

Candidates seeking age relaxation will be required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of Interview and at any subsequent stage of the recruitment process as required by IBPS/ Participating Organization. The following rules applicable to Ex-Servicemen re-employed under the Central government would apply to Ex-Servicemen candidates appearing for the CWE: Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured employment under the Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ will be permitted the benefit of age relaxation as prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group ‘C’/ ‘D’ under the Central Government. However, such candidates will not be eligible for the benefit of reservation for Ex-Servicemen in Central Government jobs. An ex-Servicemen who has once joined a Government job on civil side after availing of the benefits given to him/her as an Ex-Servicemen for his/her re-employment, his/her Ex-servicemen status for the purpose of the re-employment in Government jobs ceases. Candidates who are still in the Armed Forces and desirous of applying under Ex-servicemen category whose date of completion of specific period of engagement (SPE)  is completed one year from the last date for receipt of online application i.e. on or before 09.09.2014 are eligible to apply.

Educational Qualifications:

Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

Computer Literacy:

Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.  Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable. (Some questions may be put at the time of interview to ascertain the candidate’s familiarity with the Official Language of the State/UT) Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-Servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union as on 01.08.2013. Such certificates should be dated on or before 01.08.2013.

Note:

(1) Candidate should indicate the percentage obtained in Graduation calculated to the nearest two decimals in the online application. Where CGPA / OGPA is awarded, the same should be converted into percentage and indicate the same in online application.

(2) All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a recognized University / Institution and the result should have been declared on or before 01.08.2013.

(3) Calculation of Percentage: The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s) / year(s) by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honors / optional / additional optional subject, if any.

This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class / Grade is decided on basis of Honors marks only. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 59.99% will be treated as less than 60% and 54.99% will be treated as less than 55%.

Definitions of Ex-Servicemen (EXSM)

Ex-Servicemen (EXSM): 

Only those candidates shall be treated as Ex-servicemen who fulfill the revised definition as laid down in Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Personnel & Administrative Reforms Notification No.36034/5/85 Estt. (SCT) dated 27.01.1986 as amended from time to time.

Disabled Ex-Servicemen (DISXS):

Ex-servicemen who while serving in Armed Forces of the union were disabled in operation against the enemy or in disturbed areas shall be treated as Disabled Ex-servicemen (DISXS).

Dependents Of Servicemen Killed In Action (DXS):

Servicemen killed in the following operations would be deemed to have been killed in action attributable to military service war like operations or Border skirmishes either with Pakistan on cease fire line or any other country. fighting against armed hostiles in a counter insurgency environment  viz: Nagaland, Mizoram, etc. serving with peace keeping mission abroad. laying or clearance of mines including enemy mines as also mine sweeping  operation between one month before and three months after conclusion of an operation. frost bite during actual operations or during the period specified by the Government. dealing with agitating para-military forces personnel. IPKF Personnel killed during the operations in Sri Lanka. For the purpose of availing the concession of reservation for Dependents of Servicemen killed in action the member of the family would include his widow, son, daughter or his near relations who agree to support his family and an affidavit stating that the relaxation is availed by one dependent of Ex-servicemen or not availed by any Dependent of Servicemen killed in action will have to be submitted at the time of interview.The relaxation in upper age limit and in educational qualifications is not available to Dependents of Servicemen.

Note: The Territorial Army Personnel will be treated as ex-servicemen w.e.f. 15.11.1986.

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN & Selection Procedure 2017

The IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN will be divided into 2 parts, consisting of 2 written papers. The Preliminary examination is only qualifying in nature and will not be counted towards the final total. Only those who qualify through Phase I will be eligible to attend Phase II processes. There is no interview & final merit list will be prepared based on the marks scored by students in Mains Examination.

  • All the tests in both the exams will be available bilingually (in English & Hindi) except for English Language.
  • There will be negative marking for wrong answers. One fourth (or 0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty for wrong answers. There is no penalty for unanswered questions.
  • The scores will be normalized to equate the difficulty level of the papers in different slots.
  • You will be required to score a minimum overall cut off in both Prelims and Mains exams.
  • Besides this you will have to score minimum cut off scores in each of the sections in both examinations.
  • However, only the score of the Main examination will be considered for Final Merit Listing.
  • The final score will be scaled to a maximum of 100.

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN for Prelims 2017

Section No. of Questions Max. Marks Duration
English Language 30 30  

Composite

Time of 1 Hour

Numerical Ability 35 35
Reasoning Ability 35 35
Total 100 100

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN for Mains 2017

IBPS CLERK – EXAM PATTERN – This year IBPS has increased the difficulty level of Mains 2017 Exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains paper consist of 190 Questions of 200 marks in 160 minutes.

 Section
No. of  Questions Max. Marks Time
Reasoning & Computer  50 60 45 min
English Language 40 40 35 min
Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 min
General/Financial Awareness 50 50 35 min
TOTAL 190 200 160 min

Know all about IBPS Clerk Recruitment such as exam dates , eligibility criteria, vacancies here:

Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both – Preliminary and Main examination)

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Scores:

The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method.

Scores up to 2 decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations

Cutoff Score:

Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. Depending on number of the State/ UT wise vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview.

Common Interview:

Candidates who have been shortlisted in the main examination for CWE Clerks-V will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Bank in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The centre, address of the venue, time & date of Interview will be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interview call letters from authorised IBPS website www.ibps.in. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc. of interview will not be entertained. However the conducting agencies reserve the right to change the date/ venue/ time/ centre etc. of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date / session / venue / centre / set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any.

The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CWE (Main exam) and interview will be 80:20 respectively. The combined final score of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in the Main Examination of CWE Clerks-V and Interview. Interview score of the candidates failing to secure minimum qualifying marks or otherwise barred from the interview or further process shall not be disclosed.

A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on IBPS website.

Numerical Ability:

Number Systems, Simplification, Number series, Missing/Wrong Number, Chain Rule, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Ages, Mixture and Allegation, Pipes and Cisterns, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Simple & Compound Interest, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Areas and Volumes, Permutations and combinations, Probability.

Data Interpretation:

Pie charts, Bar graphs, Line graphs. Mixed graphs, Case study, Data tables

Logical Reasoning / General Intelligence:
Verbal Reasoning:

Analytical Reasoning, Distance Test, Seating Arrangement, Eligibility test (Decision making), Analogy, Classification, Coding Decoding, Odd Man out, Series, Mathematical Operation, Blood Relationships, Alphabet test, Data Sufficiency, Syllogism, Statements

Non Verbal Reasoning:

No Questions will be asked from this section

English / Hindi:
English (Optional):

Synonyms, Antonyms, Vocabulary, Spotting errors, Idioms and Phrases, Sentence Improvement, Sentence Rearrangement, substitution, Cloze Tests, Inappropriate Usage of Words, Sentence Correction, English Comprehension

Hindi (Optional):

Hindi Grammar & language knowledge, Passage, Synonyms, Antonyms, Spotting Errors, Filling the given Blanks with suitable words

General Awareness:

Banking terms, History of Banking, RBI, Fiscal Monetary Policies, Social Function of Banks, Marketing, World Organizations, National and International Current Events, Important Events, New Appointments, Books and Authors, World’s First Largest Longest, Prizes And Awards, Famous Places and persons, General Geography, General History, Indian Economy, General Polity, General Science, Sports And Recreation, Science And Technology, Days to remember.

Computer Knowledge:

Basic computer fundamentals, History and Future of Computers, Basic Software & Hardware and their functionalities, Computer Operations / Shortcut Keys, Networking, abbreviation used in computers, Microsoft-office, Computer Languages, Internet.

 Blue Print
Pattern Old Pattern New
Year 2011 Dec-11 2012 2013
Topics Sub topic
Numerical Ability Square Roots, Cube roots 2 2
Number System 3 6
Power
Surds & indices 1 1
Fraction 4 3 2
Time & Distance 2 2
HCF & LCM
Divisibility
Ratio & Proportion 1 1 2
Chain rule 1
Time & Work 1
Mensuration
simplification 12 12 10
Average 1 3 2
Clock 1 1
Discount
Triangle
Pipes & Cisterns
Partnership
Profit & Loss 2 1 2
Percentage 6 5 3
Probability
Simple & compound Interest 2 2 1+1
Number series 6 5 5
Area 4 4 1
Age 1 1 1
Train 1 1 1
BAR GRAPH
Time and distance
Ratio and Proportion
Number System
Percentage
PIE GRAPH
DATA INTERPRETATION Ratio & Proportion
Discount
Profit & loss
Percent
Number System
Average
LINE GRAPH 5
Percentage
Average
Ratio & proportion
Passage
Ratio & proportion
Number System
Percentage
TABLE
Percentage
Number System
Average
Ratio & Proportion
Verbal Reasoning Analogy 3
Letter Series 1 1
Alphabet Test 2 1 3
Number Series 1 1
Number Ranking
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5
Sequential output Tracing 5
Seating Arrangement (two rows) 5 5 5
Seating Arrangement (floor type) 5
Analytical Reasoning 5 5
Blood Relations
Coding & Decoding 2 7 6
Statements
Deriving Conclusions 5
Data sufficiency 5 5 3
Directions test 1
Mathematical Operations 5 5 5
Syllogisms 5 5 3
Statements
Puzzle Test 5
Non-verbal Reasoning Analogy
Completion of series 10 10
Complete & Incomplete pattern
Cubes & Dice
English Spotting Errors 10 10 12
Synonyms 3 3
Antonyms 2 2
Idioms & Phrase
Vocabulary
Sentence Improvement 5 5
Substitutions
Sentence Rearrangement 5
Comprehension 10 10 10
Sentence Completion 5 5 3
Spelling Correction 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10 10
General Knowledge Awards 2 3
Banking 18 15
Books & Authors 1 3
History
Marketing
Geography
Constitution of India 7 7
Abbreviations 3
Banking Affairs 20
Current Affairs 20
Famous Place 2 3
Days to remember 1 1
Indian Economy 4 4
Sports 4 5
Miscellaneous 3 4
General Science 1
Famous Persons 4 4
Agriculture 1
Computer Knowledge 50 50 40

RBI (ASSISTANT) EXAM 2012

Part-I: Reasoning

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters PCYO, using all the letters, but each letter only once in each word?

(a) None         (b) One          (c) Two          (d) Three        (e) More than three

2. The positions of the first and fifth letter of the word SUITABLE are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second and sixth letter, third and seventh letter, and fourth and eighth letter are interchanged. In the New arrangement, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is third from the left end and the alphabet which is second from the right end?

(a) None         (b) One          (c) Two          (d) Four          (e) More than four

Directions (3-4) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Among A,B,C,D and E, each scored different marks in an examination. Only one person scored more than C. E scored more than A but less than D. D did not score the highest marks. The one who scored the second lowest scored 71% marks. C scored 92% marks.

3. Who among the following is most likely to have scored 87% marks?

(a) A                 (b) B             (c) D                 (d) E               (e) Either A or D

4. Which of the following percentages is most likely to be B’s percentage in the exam?

(a) 68%           (b) 71%          (c) 84%          (d) 76%          (e) 97%

Directions (Q.5-7) : The following questions are based on the alphabetical series given below.

M J L I T Q S R K U F H C B D E A V P O G N

5. What will come in place of question (?) mark in the following series based on the above alphabetical series? N PO BDE

(a) UKR           (b) SRKU        (c) RKUF                (d) QSRK        (e) FUK

6. If in a certain code, ‘BIND’ is coded as ‘CLGB’ and ‘HELD’ is coded as ‘FDJB’ based on the series given above How will ‘FORK’ be coded in the same code language?

(a) HGKU        (b) UPKR        (c) KPSR         (d) UPSR            (e) UGSR

7. ‘HC’ is related to ‘KQ’ in a certain way. Similarly, ‘OG’ is related to ‘AB’ in the same way. To which of the following is ‘RK’ related following the same pattern?

(a) TJ               (b) SI                (c) TI               (d) HD                 (e) IM

8. Each vowel of the word SAVOURY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. If the new alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right) , which of the following will be fifth from the right?

(a) U                       (b) R                (c) Q                  (d) P                  (e) X

9. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word PACKETS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) One               (b) Two            (c) Three              (d) Four             (e) More than four

10. Point P is 10m to the West of Point A. Point B is 2m to the South of Point P. Point Q is 6m to the East of Point B. Point C is 2m to the North of Point Q. Which of the following three points fall in a straight line?

(a) A,C,P             (b) B, C,P         (c) Q,C,A        (d) A,B,Q         (e) A,B,C

Directions (11-15) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are following by two conclusions.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(c) if either conclusion I or II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(e) if both conclusions I and II are true

11. Statement:

H =I = J > K= L

Conclusions:

I. K < H        II. L = I

12. Statement:

S > C = O; P < C

Conclusions:

I. O < P        II. S > P

13. Statements:

A = B = C; A > R

Conclusions:

I. B > R       II. R < C

14. Statements:

D > E = F; J < F

Conclusions:

I. D > J        II. E < J

15. Statements:

P < Q > T; R = Q

Conclusions:

I. R > P       II. T < R

Directions (Q. 16-20) : Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight People are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A,B C and D are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given section arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits second to left of Q. A faces the immediate neighbour of S. Only one person sits between A and C. P does not face A. B is not an immediate neighbour of A.

16. Which of the following is true regarding D?

(a) D sits an one of the extreme ends of the line.

(b) A sits on the immediate left D.

(c) Q faces D.

(d) C is an immediate neighbour of D.

(e) No immediate neighbour of D faces R.

17. Who among the following faces C?

(a) P                   (b) Q               (c) R                     (d) S                   (e) Cannot be determined

18. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of the person who faces C?

(a) P                  (b) Q                (c) R                    (d) S                   (e) Cannot be determined

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) A                 (b) Q                 (c) R                    (d) B                  (e) S

20. Who among the following faces R?

(a) A                (b) B                  (c) C                    (d) D                  (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 21-26) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code, ‘time and money’, is written as ‘ma jo ki’, ‘manage time well’ is written as ‘pa ru jo’, ‘earn more money’ is written as ‘zi ha ma’ and ‘earn well enough’ is written as ‘si ru ha’.

21. What is the code for ‘earn’?
(a) si (b) ru (c) ha (d) ma (e) Cannot be determined
22. Which of the following represents ‘more time’?
(a) Pa jo (b) zi ki (c) ma ki (d) si jo (e) jo zi
23. What is the code for ‘manage’?
(a) ru (b) pa (c) jo (d) ha (e) Either ‘jo’ or ‘ru’
24. Which of the following may represent’ ‘money matters’?
(a) ki to (b) ma pa (c) fi ma (d) ha ma (e) ma jo
What does ‘ru’ stand for? 25
(a) well (b) manage (c) time (d) enough (e) Either ‘time’ or ‘enough’
26. Which of the following may represent ‘good enough’?
(a) ru si (b) da ha (c) si pa (d) si da (e) ki ru

Directions (Q. 27-33) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – are sitting around a circle facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. D sits third to left of A. A is an immediate neighbour of the both F and H. Only one person sits between C and F. B is not an immediate neighbour of D. Only one person sits between B and G.

27. A is related to G in a certain way. Similarly, C is related to H, according to the given seating arrangement. Who among the following is related to F, following the same pattern?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
28. Who among the following sits second to the right of C?
(a) F (b) A (c) D (d) G (e) H
29. What is the position of C with respect to the position of E?
(a) Third to the left (b) Second to the left (c) Immediate right (d) Third to the right (e) Second to the right
30. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(a) A sits on the immediate left of H. (b) B sits exactly between C and G. (c) F sits second to the right of C. (d) E is an immediate neighbour of C. (e) None is true
31. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of G?
(a) A, C (b) C, D (c) D, H (d) D, E (e) C,F
32. Who among the following sits exactly between C and F?
(a) A (b) D (c) G (d) H (e) B
33. Starting from A, if all the friends are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the positions of how many (excluding A) will remain unchanged?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four

Directions (34-37) : In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer:

(a) if only conclusion I follows.

(b) if only conclusion II follows.

(c) if either conclusion I or II follows.

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(e) if both conclusions I and II follow.

34. Statements:

All exams are tests.

No test is a question.

Conclusions:

I. At least some exams are questions.

II. No exam is a question.

35. Statements:

No bangle is an earring.

Some earrings are rings.

Conclusions:

I. No ring is a bangle.

II. Some rings are definitely not earnings.

36. Statements:

Some banks are colleges.

All colleges are schools.

Conclusions:

I. At least some banks are schools.

II. All schools are colleges.

37. Statements:

All rivers are lakes.

All lakes are oceans.

Conclusions:

I. All rivers are oceans.

II. At least some oceans are lakes.

Directions (38-40) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d) if the data neither in statement I nor in statement II are sufficient to answer the question statement

(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

38. On which date of the month was Parul born?

I. Her mother correctly remembers that she was born after 15th but before 21st of April.

II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after 18th but before 24th of April.

39. How many brothers does Meghna have? Meghna is a girl.

I. Kishore, the father of Meghna, is the only child of Kamal. Kamal has only two grandchildren.

II. Jyoti, the daughter-in-law of Kamal, has son and a daughter.

40. Among P, Q, R, S and T, sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

I. S sits third to the left of Q. S is an immediate neighbour of both P and T.

II. Two people sit between T and R. R does not sit at either of the extreme ends. P sits second to the right of T.

Part – II: English

Directions (Q. 41-45) : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

41. The government is planning to set ….. family welfare centres for slums in cities.
(a) another (b) with (c) for (d) in (e) up
42. Economic independence and education have women more assertive.
(a) prepared (b) made (c) marked (d) resulted (e) adjusted
43. In the modern world, the ……… of change and scientific innovation is unusually rapid.
(a) supplies (b) context (c) pace (d) fantasy (e) requirement
44. The unprecedented economic growth of china has ……… worldwide attention.
(a) perceived (b) proposed (c) neither (d) astonished (e) attracted
45. Each business activity ……….. employment to people who would otherwise be unemployed.
(a) taking (b) finds (c) creates (d) provides (e) given

Directions (Q. 46-55) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate while answering some of the questions.

The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially so, in the teaching – learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that allows you to look at the world from someone else’s perspective. Making other people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the first step to better communication – the primary goal of all true educators. Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree, how one communicates determines one’s effectiveness as a teacher. A study on communication styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through voice intonation and 55% through body language. Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages.

The process of communication is composed of three elements: the source (sender, speaker, transmitter or instructor) , the symbol used in composing and transmitting of the message (words or signs) , and the receiver (listener, reader or student) . The three elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It’s also about receiving information the others are sending to you, with as little distortion as possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it’s a process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or misinterpreted by the reciepent. When this isn’t detected it can cause tremendous confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity. Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in the teaching profession. Carefully planned and skillfully delivered messages can issue invitations to students that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others. Effective communication is essential for a wellrun classroom. A teacher who is able to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport. Although this sounds simple and obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying something out loud to a student. They must also realise that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

Directions (46-47) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Abundant

(a) Small                                (b) Little                 (c) False                 (d) Sufficient             (e) Rare

47. Muddled

(a) Skillfully organised       (b) Strongly controlled         (c) Clearly conveyed

(d) Isolated                            (e) Complicated

Directions (48-50) : Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. Sounds

(a) Seems                    (b) Corrects           (c) Noises            (d) Takes                    (e) Silences.

49. Affinity

(a) Partnership           (b) Partiality          (c) Weakness     (d) Compatibility      (e) Discord

50. Degree

(a) Extent                     (b) Goal                   (c) Affect              (d) Situation              (e) Direction

51. Which of the following is/are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly

(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity

(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.

(a) Only (A) and (C)                  (b) Only  (B)                                 (c) Only (A)

(d) Only (C)                                 (e) Only (B) and (C)

52. Which of the following is true about ‘rapport’ as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.

(B) It is based on understanding of other people’s frame of reference.

(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.

(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.

(a) Only (A) and (B)                    (b) Only (B) and (D)       (c) Only (A) , (B) and (D)

(d) Only (A) , (B) and (C)           (e) All are true

53. Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in student as per the passage?

(a) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within the lecture hours.

(b) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.

(c) To realise hat all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

(d) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.

(e) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

54. Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the passage?

(a) Source, Signs and Students

(b) Source, Sender and Speaker

(c) Signs, Words and Students

(d) Instructor, Listener and Reader

(e) Transmitter, Students and Receiver

55. Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?

(a) The body language and gestures account for 38% of communication and outweighs the voice intonation.

(b) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone and body language.

(c) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and outweighs the body language.

(d) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our tone and body language.

(e) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty per cent interpersonal for communication skills.

Directions (Q. 56-65) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e) . (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

56. The economic disparity (a) / has grown rapid in(b) / the era of globalisation(c) / and free market forces(d) / No error(e)

57. Research shows that people (a) / is more sensitive to perceiving (b) / messages that are consistent (c) / with their opinions and attitudes. (d) / No error (e)

58. Many poverty alleviation schemes (a) / are not applicable of (b) / slum dwellers in metro cities (c) / as they are above the poverty line(d) / No error (e)

59. Rather than considering it’s (a) / human capital as a drain on (b) / resources, India needs to (c) / resource develop its into a huge opportunity. (d) / No error (e)

60. The European nations have (a) / become one of the (b) / favorite destinations of the Indian students (c) / seek specialised Knowledge and training. (d) / No error (e)

61. If a credit card bill (a) / is paid in full and (b) / on time, none finance (c) / charges are levied. (d) / No error (e)

62. Training have a (a) / positive effect on (b) / development of various (c) / skills and abilities. (d) / No error (e)

63. Lack of ability to (a) / read or write is just one of (b) / the all barriers that keep (c) / the poor people under developed. (d) / No error (e)

64. Science and technology have (a) / become dominant factors (b) / affecting our economic, cultural (c) / and spiritual development. (d) / No error (e)

65. A social business sells products (a) / at prices that make it Self- sustaining, pays (b) / no dividends and reinvestment (c) / the profits in the business. (d) / No error (e)

Directions (Q.66-75) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The latest technology (66) put to use or about to arrive in market must be (67) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an (68) effect on business. Valve radio’s gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital equipment. Business has (69) the same but the technology has kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased (70) so did the use of its material and consequently its price. The traditional flour mills are losing business (71) customers now buy flour (72) from the market. As a result of this, the business is (73) Following the same lines as technology, the social trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken (74) by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also the technology and plan in (75) with these to ensure the success of his endeavour.

66. (a) to (b) needed (c) decided (d) besides (e) being
67. (a) hoped (b) welcome (c) released (d) Known (e) aware
68. (a) approximate (b) huge (c) uniform (d) excellence (e) enormous
69. (a) maintained (b) remained (c) often (d) mentioned (e) become
70. (a) mainly (b) and (c) how (d) also (e) some
71. (a) reason (b) due (c) young (d) as (e) old
72. (a) knowingly (b) ease (c) cheap (d) directly (e) forcefully
73. (a) shrinking (b) blooming (c) returned (d) same (e) small
74. (a) against (b) to (c) over (d) up (e) for
75. (a) lines (b) relativity (c) accordance (d) proper (e) toning

Directions (76-80) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) and (E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Understandably, the newly married woman herself wants to spend more time with the family.

(B) They also worry that she might not be able to defend herself in case of trouble.

(C) Once married, the in-law exert a lot of pressure for similar cause of security.

(D) Initially, the family does not want the “decent” girl going all around.

(E) Retaining female workers at door-to-door sales jobs is just as hard as ever.

76. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E (b) B (c) D (d) C (e) A
77. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) E
78. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) D (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) A
79. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C (b) A (c) E (d) D (e) B
80. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B (b) D (c) C (d) A (e) E

Part-  III: Aptitude

Directions (81-85) What will come in the place of Question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. (5 × 7) % of (34 × 55) + 456.60 = 699.1 + ?

(a) 412                (b) 422                (c) 418                  (d) 428               (e) None of these

82. 14 × 627 ÷ v1089 = (?)3 + 141

(a) 5v5               (b) (125)3            (c)25                      (d) 5                   (e) None of these

8Capture

(a) 2                    (b) 8                     (c) 512                  (d) 324                (e) None of these

84. (80 × 0.40)3 ÷ (40 × 1.6)3 × (128)3 = (2)? + 7

(a) 25                (b) 11                      (c) 12                    (d) 18                   (e) None of these

85. (v7 + 11)2 = (?)1/3 + 2v847 + 122

(a) 36 + 44v7         (b) 6             (c) 216                     (d) 37                 (e) None of these

D.(86-90): what approximate value should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions? (note: you are not expected to calculate the exact value)

86. 193.999 + 228.008 + ? + 422.005 = 1168.01
(a) 196 (b) 324 (c) 484 (d) 226 (e) 168
87. image001
(a) 50 (b) 30 (c) 110 (d) 70 (e) 20
88. 888888 ÷ 88 ÷ 8 = ?
(a) 1263 (b) 70600 (c) 1526 (d) 80800 (e) 1047
89. 27.8 × 28.74 × 17.3 = ?
(a) 12546 (b) 10228 (c) 13822 (d) 14995 (e) 15183
90. 1333.906 ÷ 2.103 × 5.9306 + 12.063 = ?
(a) 6063 (b) 10083 (c) 2826 (d) 5630 (e) 4041
D.(91-95): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following number series?
91. 28, 33, 31, 36, 34, ?
(a) 37 (b) 39 (c) 29 (d) 35 (e) None of these
92. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143
(a) 27 (b) 39 (c) 29 (d) 35 (e) None of these
93. 3, 28, 4, 65, 5, 126, 6, ?
(a) 215 (b) 216 (c) 217 (d) 218 (e) None of these
94. 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?
(a) 1135 (b) 1288 (c) 316 (d) 2254 (e) None of these
95. 7, 15, 32, ?, 138
(a) 70 (b) 65 (c) 76 (d) 57 (e) None of these
96. 12 men alone can complete a piece of work in six days, whereas 10 men and 21 women take three days to complete the same piece of work. In how many days can 12 women alone complete the same piece of work?
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 8 (e) None of these
97. The owner of an electronic store charges his customer 11% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,33,200 for an LED TV, what was the original price of the TV?
(a) Rs. 1,20,000 (b) Rs. 1,14,500 (c) Rs. 1,22,500 (d) Rs. 1,18,000 (e) None of these
98. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their ages is 16 : 3. What is the age of the daughter?
(a) 9 years (b) 3 years (c) 12 years (d) 6 years (e) None of these
99. Ram invested a sum of Rs. 2000 with a financing company at 12 % per annum for 2 yr. The interest at the end of the period received by Ram is
(a) Rs. 560  (b) Rs. 840  (c) Rs. 480  (d) Rs. 380  (e) None of these
100. A car covers a certain distance in three hours at the speed of 124 Km/hr. What is the average speed of a truck which travels a distance of 120 Km less than the car in the same time?
(a) 88 km/hr (b) 84 km/hr (c) 78 km/hr (d) 73 km/hr (e) None of these
101. The cost of four calculators and two stencils is Rs. 6,200 what is the cost of ten calculators and five stencils ?
(a) Rs. 15,500 (b) Rs. 14,875 (c) Rs. 16,200 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None
102. Find the average of the following set of scores: 214, 351, 109, 333, 752, 614, 456, 547
(a) 482 (b) 428 (c) 444 (d) 424 (e) None of these
103. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D is 54. What is the product of A and C?
(a) 2907 (b) 2805 (c) 2703 (d) 2915 (e) None of these
104. The sum of 55% of a number and 40% of the same number is 180.5. What is 80% of that number?
(a) 134 (b) 152 (c) 148 (d) 166 (e) None of these
105. There are 950 employees in an organisation, out of which 28% got promoted. Find the number of employees who got promoted.
(a) 226 (b) 256 (c) 266 (d) 216 (e) None of these
106. What is the least number to be added to 3000 to make it a perfect square?
(a) 191 (b) 136 (c) 25 (d) 84 (e) None of these
107. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 7,640 at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a. after two years?
(a) Rs. 2,634.9 (b) Rs. 2,643.9 (c) Rs. 2,364.9 (d) Rs. 2,463.9 (e) None of these
108. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 874 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(a) 1450 (b) 1640 (c) 1500 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
109. A juice centre requires 35 dozen guavas for 28 days. How many dozen guavas will it require for 36 days?
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 40 (d) 45 (e) None of these
110. Mohan sold an item for Rs. 4,510 and incurred a loss of 45%. At what price should he have sold the item to have earned a profit of 45%?
(a) Rs. 10,900 (b) Rs. 12,620 (c) Rs. 11,890 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None
111. In how many different ways can the letter of the word INHALE be arranged?
(a) 720 (b) 360 (c) 120  (d) 650  (e) None of these
112. What would be the circumference of a circle whose area is 745.36 sq cm?
(a) 94.4 cm (b) 88.8 cm (c) 96.3 cm (d) 87.4 cm (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 113-115) : What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
113. 5, 15, 35, 75, 155, (?)
(a) 295 (b) 315 (c) 275 (d) 305 (e) None of these
114. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, (?)
(a) 2160 (b) 1800 (c) 2520 (d) 1440 (e) None of these
115. 688, 472, 347, 283, 256, (?)
(a) 236 (b) 229 (c) 255 (d) 248 (e) None of these

Part -IV: General Awareness

121. USA has asked India to reduce its dependence on crude oil supply from which of the following countries which is also a member of OPEC?
(a) Venezuela (b) Iraq (c) Libya (d) Iran (e) Nigeria
122. Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be provided to the poor people to bring them into the network of financial inclusion?
(a) Insurance for life (b) Investment plan for future (c) Pension for old age (d) A bank account where he/she can save small amount (e) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalisation in case of need
123. Who among the following is the president of a country at present?
(a) Rupert Murdoch (b) Ban ki-moon (c) Yoshihiko Noda (d) Nicolas Sarkozy (e) None of these
124. What does the letter F denote in ‘NBFCs’, a term seen very frequently in banking world these days?
(a) Formal (b) Fiscal (c) Federal (d) Functional (e) Financial
125. Who among the following is the Deputy Governor of the RBI at present?
(a) Sunil Mitra (b) Azim Premji (c) HR Khan (d) Sushma Nath (e) None of these
126. Standard and Poor’s is a Credit Rating Agency of international repute. Which of the following is one such agency of Indian origin?
(a) IBA (b) BASEL (c) SEBI (d) IRDA (e) CRISIL
127. Who among the following is the chief minister of Uttar Pradesh at present?
(a) Akhilesh Yadav (b) Mulayam Singh Yadav (c) Mayawati (d) Amar Singh (e) None of these
128. Coin of which of the following denominations is called Small Coin?
(a) Rs. 1 (b) Rs. 2 (c) Rs. 5 (d) 50 paise (e) Rs. 10
129. Which of the following is not a highlight of the Union Budget 2012-13?
(a) No change in the rate of Corporate Tax. (b) All types of loans upto Rs. 35 lakh will be given on 6% interest only. (c) Service Tax raised from 10% to 12%. (d) Fiscal Deficit is targeted at 5.1% of GDP. (e) Substantial increase in Defence Budget.
130. Which of the following services products of banks is specially designed and launched to help students?
(a) Personal loan (b) Corporate loan (c) Business loan (d) Medical loan (e) Education loan
131. Which of the following terms is not directly associated with the functioning of RBI?
(a) Open Market Operations (b) Cash Reserve Ratio (c) SENSEX (d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (e) Public Debt Office
132. Which of the following is one of the major activities of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) ?
(a) On-site inspection of Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) (b) Helping Govt of India in preparing Union Budget and presenting it in the cabinet meeting. (c) Acting as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country. (d) Deciding rate of interest on Savings Bank Accounts in Public Sector Banks. (e) Representing India in World Bank and other such agencies.
133. Dipika, who won Crocodile Challenge Cup Finals, in December 2011, is a famous
(a) Badminton player (b) Table Tennis player (c) Lawn Tennis player (d) Chess player (e) Squash player
134. Who among the following is the recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature given in 2011?
(a) Bruce A Beutler (b) V S Naipaul (c) Thomas Transtromer (d) Ralph M Steinman (e) Chetan Bhagat
135. The 59th National Film Award for Best Actress was given to
(a) Vidya Balan (b) Kareena Kapoor (c) Priyanka Chopra (d) Lara Dutta (e) Roopa Ganguly
136. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the body/ agency set up to boost foreign investments in India?
(a) FORE (b) FCCB (c) FIPB (d) FEMA (e) AITAF
137. Which of the following is not considered infrastructural sector of the economy?
(a) Electricity (b) Textile Sector (c) Telecom (d) Cement (e) Road and Railways
138. Sachin Tendulkar made his 100th century in the match played between India and
(a) Pakistan (b) England (c) Australia (d) Bangladesh (e) Sri Lanka
139. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2012?
(a) TV Rajeswar (b) Aruna Irani (c) AR Rahman (d) Shabana Azmi (e) Anup Jalota
140. Which of the following countries is a member of BRICs?
(a) Bhutan (b) Iran (c) Romania (d) Sudan (e) South Africa
141. Which of the following countries has recently placed its first space lab ‘Tiangong-1’ into orbit?
(a) North Korea (b) Japan (c) India (d) France (e) China
142. Who among the following is the Solicitor General of India at present?
(a) Jacob Mathew (b) Rohinton Nariman (c) Gopal Subramaniam (d) Ashok Chawla (e) None
143. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India to motivate school children to attend school regularly?
(a) Kutir Jyoti (b) Mid-Day Meal (c) MGNREGA (d) RAY (e) Bharat Nirman
144. As per the news published in various newspapers, govt is planning to set up a regulatory body in educational field especially for
(a) Higher Education (b) Medical Education (c) Elementary Education (d) Secondary Education (e) Adult Education
145. Which of the following countries has been selected as the host of Commonwealth Games 2018?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) Pakistan (d) South Africa (e) Sri Lanka
146. France has agreed to supply ‘Rafale’ to India. The deal is about the supply of
(a) Warships (b) RADAR system (c) Fighter Aircrafts (d) Nuclear Reactors (e) Submarines
147. Seychelles, where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country in the
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) China Sea (c) Indian Ocean (d) Red Sea (e) Caspian Sea
148. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics?
(a) Absolute Zero (b)Molecular Equation (c) Zero Point Energy (d) Balance of Payment (e) Mass Defect
149. ‘Kyoto Protocol’, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with the field of
(a) International trade (b) Clean environment and climate change (c) Currency swap (d) Deep sea mining and oil exploration (e) Building a common food stock to save mankind in case of any natural calamity
150. World AIDS Day is observed on which of the following days?
(a) 1st December (b) 1st March (c) 1st April (d) 1st May (e) 1st January
151. USA decided to withdraw its army from which of the following countries after a nine-year long stay?
(a) Afghanistan (b) Libya (c) Egypt (d) Iraq (e) Iran
152. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(a) FIFA Cup (b) Champions Trophy (c) Ranji Trophy (d) Subroto Cup (e) Davis Cup
153. Which award is given to the coaches of sportspersons?
(a) Dronacharya Award (b) Arjun Award (c) Kalidas Samman (d) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (e) Saraswati Samman
154. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
(a) Heave (b) Silly point (c) Tee (d) Smash (e) Grand Slam
155. Anew nuclear power plant is being set up in which of the following places in India?
(a) Amethi (b) Firozabad (c) Jaitapur (d) Joshi Math (e) Satna
156. Which of the following schemes has been launched to make cities of India slumfree?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (b) Bharat Nirmal (c) Rajiv Awas Yojana (d) Indira Awas Yojana (e) None of these
157. Who among the following is a famous author of Indian origin?
(a)Homi K Bhabha (b) Kiran Desai (c) Swati A Piramal (d) Shabana Azmi (e) Ronen Sen
158. Who among the following has written the famous book Malgudi Days?
(a) VS Naipaul (b) Deepak Chopra (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d)Vijay Tendulkar (e) RK Narayan
159. Which of the following is NOT the name of the currency of a country?
(a) Rand (b) Pound (c) Dinar (d) Ecuador (e) Dollar
160. Which of the following is the unit of heat?
(a) Joule (b) Ohm (c) Ampere (d) Volt (e) Newton

Part- V: Computer Knowledge

161. What is backup?
(a) Adding more components to your network. (b) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination. (c) Filtering old data from the new data. (d) Accessing data on tape (e) Using earlier data.
162. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a
(a) software privacy policy (b) software license (c) software password manager (d) software log (e) None of these
163. What is an e-mail attachment?
(a) A receipt sent by the recipient. (b) A separate document from another program sent along with an e-mail. (c) A malicious parasite that feeds on your messages and destroys and contents. (d) A list of CC or BCC recipients. (e) A friend to whom e-mail is sent regularly.
164. Which of the following is the type of software that controls the internal operations in the computer and controls how the computer works with all its parts?
(a) Shareware (b) Public domain software (c) Application software (d) Operating system software (e) None of these.
165. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes.
(a) data redundancy (b) information overload (c) duplicate data (d) data consistency (e) data inconsistency
166. What is the main folder on a storage device called?
(a) Root directory (b) interface (c) Device driver (d) Platform (e) Main directory
167. To view information on the Web you must have a
(a) cable modem (b) Web browser (c) domain name server (d) hypertext viewer (e) None of these
168. A file is often referred to as a
(a) Wizard (b) document (c) pane (d) device (e)documentation
169. To protect yourself from computer hacker intrusions you should install a
(a) firewall (b) mailer (c) macro (d) script (e) None of these
170. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a client-server system?
(a) Mainframe (b) Mini-computer (c) Microcomputer (d) PDA (e) None of these
171. What happens when you boot up a PC?
(a) Portions of the operating system are copied from disk into memory. (b) Portions of the operating system are copied from memory onto disk. (c) Portions of the operating system are compiled. (d) Portions of the operating system are emulated. (e) The PC gets switched off.
172. Linux is an example of
(a) freeware (b) open source software (c) shareware (d)complimentary (e) None of these
173. Which of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(a) Database (b) Document processor (c) Graphics package (d) Spreadsheet (e) Power Point
174. A ………. is used to read hand written or printed text to make a digital image that is stored in memory.
(a) printer (b) laser beam (c) scanner (d) touchpad (e) None of these
175. You organise files by storing them in
(a) archives (b) lists (c) indexes (d) folders (e) None of these
176. A…………….. is pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background.
(a) guide (b) model (c) ruler (d) template (e) design-plate
177. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(a) WRD (b) TXT (c) DOC (d) FIL (e) WD
178. Removing and replacing devices without turning off your computer is referred to as
(a) Hot swapping (b) Plug-n-Play (c) Bay swap (d) USB swapping (e) None of these.
179. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called.
(a) information engines (b) locator engines (c) web browsers (d) resource locators (e) search engines
180. Compiling creates a(n)
(a) error-free program (b) program specification (c) subroutine (d) algorithm (e) executable program
181. Expansion cards are inserted into
(a) slots (b) peripheral devices (c) the CPU (d) the back of the computer (e) None
182. A device that connects to a network without the use of cable is said to be
(a) distributed (b) non-wired (c) centralized (d) open source (e) wireless
183. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)
(a) workstation (b) CPU (c) magnetic disk (d) integrated circuit (e) complex circuit
184. Junk e-mail is also called
(a) crap (b) spoof (c) sniffer script (d) spool (e) spam
185. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to “infect” other computers is called a
(a) disease (b) torpedo (c) hurricane (d) virus (e) infector
186. …………… shows the files, folders, and drives on your computer, making it easy to navigate from one location to another within the file hierarchy.
(a) Microsoft Internet Explorer. (b) Windows Explorer (c) My Computer (d) Folders Manager (e) Windows Locator
187. The …………………. manual tells you how to use a software program.
(a)Documentation (b) programming (c) user (d) Technical (e) designer
188. A collection of interrelated records is called a
(a) utility file (b) management information system (c) database (d) spreadsheet (e) datasheet
189. File extension is used
(a) For naming the file (b) To ascertain that file name is not lost (c) To identify file (d) To identify file type (e) to make items complex
190. What is Gutter margin?
(a) Margin added to left margin (b) Margin added to right margin while printing (c) Margin added to binding side of the page while printing (d) Margin added to outside of page while printing (e) None of these
191. ALU of CPU has
(a) RAM space (b) Register (c) Byte space (d) Secondary storage space (e) None of these
192. What happens when operating system is loaded in RAM?
(a) Copying (b) Device driving (c) Booting (d) Multitasking (e) None of these
193. In page preview mode
(a) You can see all the pages of your document (b) You can see only that page on which your are currently working (c) You can see only that page which have no graphics (d) You can see only title page of your document (e) You can see only the last page of your document
194. When you will start your computer Boot routine will perform
(a) RAM Test (b) Disk drive test (c) Memory test (d) Power – on – self test (e) Whether power supply is on or off
195. Machine language uses
(a) Numeric code (b) English language code (c) Java Language (d) CPU Processing code (e) None of these
196. What is the keyboard short – cut for new slide?
(a) Ctrl + M (b) Ctrl + N (c) Ctrl + Shift + N (d) Ctrl + s (e) None of these
197. Vertical space between lines of text in document is called
(a) Double space (b) Line gap (c) Single space (d) Vertical spacing (e) Line spacing
198. Full form of CD – RW is
(a) Compact Drum, Read, Write (b) Compact Diskette, Read, Write (c) Compact Disc, Read – Only then write (d) Compact Diskette with Random Write Capability (e) Compact Disc – Rewritable
199. Password makes users capable
(a) To enter into system quickly (b) To use time efficiently (c) To retain the secrecy of files (d) To make file structure simple (e) To feel special
200. Files deleted from hard disc are sent to
(a) Dustbin (b) Floppy disc (c) Clip board (d) Mother board (e) Recycle bin

Answer Key:

1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(e) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(c)
9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(e) 14.(d) 15.(e) 16.(d)
17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(e) 20.(a) 21.(c) 22.(e) 23.(b) 24.(c)
25.(a) 26.(d) 27.(d) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(e) 31.(b) 32.(e)
33.(b) 34.(b) 35.(d) 36.(a) 37.(e) 38.(d) 39.(e) 40.(b)
41.(e) 42.(b) 43.(c) 44.(e) 45.(d) 46.(b) 47.(c) 48.(a)
49.(d) 50.(a) 51.(a) 52.(e) 53.(c) 54.(a) 55.(d) 56.(b)
57.(b) 58.(b) 59.(d) 60.(d) 61.(c) 62.(e) 63.(c) 64.(e)
65.(c) 66.(e) 67.(d) 68.(e) 69.(b) 70.(b) 71.(d) 72.(d)
73.(a) 74.(c) 75.(c) 76.(c) 77.(b) 78.(d) 79.(e) 80.(d)
81.(a) 82.(d) 83.(c) 84.(b) 85.(c) 86.(b) 87.(d) 88.(a)
89.(c) 90.(e) 91.(b) 92.(c) 93.(c) 94.(a) 95.(e) 96.(b)
97.(a) 98.(d) 99.(b) 100.(b) 101.(a) 102.(e) 103.(b) 104.(b)
105.(c) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(e) 109.(d) 110.(c) 111.(a) 112.(e)
113.(b) 114.(a) 115.(d) 116.(a) 117.(e) 118.(e) 119.(d) 120.(c)
121.(d) 122.(d) 123.(d) 124.(e) 125.(c) 126.(e) 127.(a) 128.(d)
129.(b) 130.(e) 131.(c) 132.(a) 133.(e) 134.(c) 135.(a) 136.(c)
137.(b) 138.(d) 139.(a) 140.(e) 141.(e) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(a)
145.(b) 146.(b) 147.(c) 148.(d) 149.(b) 150.(a) 151.(d) 152.(e)
153.(a) 154.(b) 155.(c) 156.(c) 157.(b) 158.(e) 159.(d) 160.(a)
161.(b) 162.(b) 163.(b) 164.(d) 165.(e) 166.(a) 167.(b) 168.(b)
169.(a) 170.(a) 171.(a) 172.(b) 173.(d) 174.(c) 175.(d) 176.(d)
177.(c) 178.(b) 179.(e) 180.(e) 181.(a) 182.(e) 183.(d) 184.(e)
185.(d) 186.(b) 187.(c) 188.(c) 189.(d) 190.(c) 191.(b) 192.(c)
193.(a) 194.(d) 195.(a) 196.(a) 197.(e) 198.(e) 199.(c) 200.(e)

Part -I (General Awareness)

1. Many times we read in financial newspapers/magazines about systematic Investment Plans (SIPs). SIPs are an investment option also operated in the mode of __

(a) Mutual Funds                      (b) Small Savings Schemes in Post Offices

(c) National Pension Fund     (d) National Saving Certificates                 (e) None of these

2. Which of the following banks has created a network of 15000 branches and still growing?

(a) State Bank of India        (b) ICICI Bank               (c) Punjab National Bank

(d) Axis Bank                        (e) None of these

3. Which of the names is not associated with the operations of the Defence Forces in India?

(a) Sukhoi-30           (b) MIG-29         (c) Tejas           (d) SARAS          (e) Astra

4. The Democratic party of which of the following countries through its manifesto for the general elections has called for a child allowance, higher unemployment benefits, lower road tolls, and a radical shake up of the system that gives civil servants a huge influence over politicians?

(a) USA                     (b) China              (c) France        (d) Japan             (e) India

5. Which of the following was put into orbit by the ISRO for the first time in the microwave brand?

(a) Edusat     (b) TECSAR    (c) PSLV        (d) ANUSAT   (e) RITSAT

6. Who amongst the following has suggested to the banks in India to give details of fund to customers via SMS/E-mails?

(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)                      (b) India Bank Associations (IBA)

(c) Indian Institute of Banking & Finance    (d) Securities & Exchange Board of India

(e) None of these

7. Which of the following new schemes is launched to make India Slum free in next five year’s time?

(a) Rahul Gandhi Slum Re-Development Scheme          (b) Indira Awas Yojana

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru Awas Yojana                                    (d) National Slum Re – Development Scheme

(e) Rajiv Awas Yojana

8. As per the new guidelines, which of the following taxes is/are now abolished?

(A) Wealth Tax

(B) Fringe Benefit Tax

(C) Commodity Transaction Tax

(a) Only A         (b) Only B         (c) Only C         (d) All A, B and C        (e) Only B and C

9. Which of the following in India added a record 16 million new customers in a month’s time recently?

(a) Banking Industry                                     (b) F M Radio Channels        (c) Telecom Industry

(d) Photo fixed voters identity cards         (e) None of these

10. As per the Union Budget 2009-10 a National level Authority is set up for cleaning which of the following rivers?

(a) Chambal             (b) Narmada                (c) Kaveri             (d) Ganga           (e) Godavari

11. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 2009-10 presented by Mr. Pranab Mukherjee?

(A) Allocation for rural jobs under NREGS hiked by 144% to make it Rs 39100 crore for the year

(B) Target for Farm Credit set at Rs. 325000 crores, which is an increase of Rs. 38000 crores

(C) Hike in rates of Income Tax at all the levels/all the slabs by 10%

(a) Only A          (b) Only B           (c) Only A & B             (d) All A, B and C         (e) None of these

12. A new Foreign Bank Sarasin & Co. has launched its operations in India recently. This is a bank based in ______

(a) USA             (b) Switzerland         (c) France        (d) Germany                (e) None of these

13. India has a plan to achieve a target of 200000 MW power generation through which of the following models by the year 2050?

(a) Solar only           (b) Thermal Only      (c) Nuclear only        (d) Hydro only          (e) All of these

14. Which of the following awards was given to Dr. G. Madhavan Nair recently?

(a) Man of the year         (b) Bharat Ratna       (c) Businessman of the year

(d) Best Public servant of the year                    (e) None of these

15. The President of Which of the following countries got an opportunity to interact with an American president after a gap of almost fifty years recently at an international summit?

(a) Cuba               (b) Brazil                  (c) Russia               (d) Austria            (e) Belgium

16. Which of the following two countries are now ready to cooperate with each other and extend their trade ties after a long gap of about six decades?

(a) Japan-USA                  (b) India-Bangladesh           (c) Japan-Sri Lanka

(d) China-Taiwan            (e) None of these

17. Which of the following political parties got an overwhelming majority in the general elections of Africa?

(a) The Democratic Forum of Africa          (b) The Labour Party of Africa

(c) The African National Congress             (d) The National Democratic alliance of Africa

(e) None of these

18. Which of the following facilities is located in Russia’s Angarsk at Siberia and remains in news very often? Russia’s _______

(a) Uranium enrichment plant                       (b) Space Research centre

(c) Spying Agency KGB’s Head quarter       (d) Biggest naval base         (e) None of these

19. Russia decided to boost its military ties with which of its neighboring countries and is planning to have atleast 25 joint manoeuvres and war games in the current year?

(a) India            (b) China          (c) Poland          (d) Slovakia Republic               (e) None of these

20. Which of the following awards is given to Pt. Jasraj recently?

(a) Kalidas Samman           (b) Saraswathi Samman      (c) Padma Bhushan

(d) Bharatratna                   (e) None of these

21. The Leftist Coalition made up of the social Democratic Alliance and the left Green movement got a good victory in the recently held general elections in ______

(a) Nepal           (b) Iceland           (c) Macedonia               (d) Mexico             (e) North Korea

22. Yongbyon Nuclear complex is the nuclear facility of which of the following nations and was in news recently?

(a) Bangladesh         (b) Nepal       (c) North Korea        (d) South Korea      (e) None of these

23. Which of the following is Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) at present?

(a) 10%            (b) 15%             (c) 20%            (d) 24%             (e) 33%

24. Which of the following is most preferred cross border trade point between India and Pakistan as the maximum transaction takes place from there?

(a) Bikaner    (b) Ganga Nagar      (c) Wagah     (d) Mujaffarabad      (e) None of these

25. Which of the following is not amongst the top five purchaser of energy sold by other states in India?

(a) Andhra Pradesh   (b) West Bengal       (c) Karnataka          (d) Maharashtra

(e) Tamil Nadu

26. China has decided to boost up its trade ties with which of the following poor Himalayan countries by extending its aid by 50%?

(a) Bangladesh         (b) Nepal       (c) Myanmar (d) Pakistan   (e) Afghanistan

27. How much amount Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) got from Govt. of India as a relief package recently?

(a) Rs. 5000 crores                       (b) Rs. 6000 crores                     (c) Rs. 8000 crores

(d) Rs. 9000 crores                      (e) Rs. 12000 crores

28. Which of the following is a chemical fertilizer?

(a) Zinc oxide                 (b) Silver chloride                (c) Neptha                 (d) Calcium carbonate

(e) Murate of Potash (MOP)

29. Which of the following is the book written by Vikram Seth?

(a) The sea             (b) Magic Seeds              (c) My Life            (d) Two Lives                 (e) Namesake

30. Constitutional Amendment 73 & 74 are associated with _______

(a) Creation of the post of Ombudsman in banks           (b) Right to Information act

(c) Panchayat Raj Institutions                      (d) Pay and perks to the president of India

(e) None of these

31. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with the game of

(a) Lawn Tennis        (b) Cricket     (c) Chess       (d) Golf         (e) Hockey

32. The Govt. of India recently announced that the Tax collection during the year was short by

(a) Rs. 10000 crores           (b) Rs. 20000 crores                     (c) Rs. 30000 crores

(d) Rs. 35000 crores          (e) Rs. 40000 crores

33. The short term loans given to the farmers are the loans given normally for a period of

(a) three months      (b) six months         (c) nine months

(d) one year               (e) fifteen months

34. The famous “123 Agreement” is closely associated with ________

(a) subsidy to agricultural products          (b) import of pharma products

(c) purchase of aircrafts from France       (d) Nuclear Energy              (e) None of these

35. Which of the following is the biggest programme launched for school children and has been very successful?

(a) Antyodaya Yojana         (b) Food for work     (c) Mid Day Meal      (d) ASHA

(e) None of these

36. ‘Davis Cup’ is associated with the game of

(a) Cricket     (b) Hockey     (c) Laws Tennis        (d) Football    (e) None of these

37. Which of the following state govts. Launched Jawahar Knowledge Centres to train rural youth?

(a) Delhi        (b) Karnataka          (c) Andhra Pradesh             (d) Tamil Nadu           (e) None of these

38. India started its five year planning with effect from the year

(a) 1955        (b) 1951        (c) 1960        (d) 1965        (e) 1948

39. The Head of the Reserve Bank of India is designated as the _____

(a) Chief Executive Officer             (b) Managing Director         (c) Chief Banking Officer

(d) Dy. Governor                              (e) None of these

40. Which of the following is normally grown in hilly areas on mountain slope as it is not a crop of plains?

(a) Tea         (b) Wheat      (c) Banana     (d) Roses      (e) All of these

Part II-(General English)

Directions (Q. 41-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

             Long ago there was a poor Brahmin named Krishnan. He could not find enough work to do. Sometimes, he and his family had to go without food. At last Krishnan decided to leave his village in search of work. Early next morning, he left the house. He walked the whole day until he came to a thick jungle. He was tired, thirsty and hungry. While looking around for water to drink, he found a well. He went to the well and looked in. There he saw a jaguar, a monkey, a snake and a man. They had all fallen into the well. “O, noble Brahmin,” the jaguar called out to him, “Please help me out, so that I can go back to my family”. “But you are a jaguar,” and Krishnan, “How do I know you will not kill me?” “Don’t be afraid of me, I promise I will not do you any harm,” replied the jaguar. Krishnan reached into the well and pulled out the jaguar. The jaguar thanked him and said, “I’m Shersingh. I live in a cave in the mountains. I shall be most delighted if I can repay my debt to you someday.” Krishnan then heard the monkey calling out to him from the well. The Brahmin at once pulled the monkey out. The monkey thanked the Brahmin, “If you are over in need of food, just drop in at my place below that big mountain. Bali is my name, “Now the snake called out to him for help. “Help you!” exclaimed Krishnan. “You are a snake. What if you bite me?” “I shall never bite you,” said the snake. So Krishnan pulled the snake out of the well. The snake said “Remember, if you are ever in any difficulty, just call out my anme – Naagesh, wherever you are, I shall find you.”The jaguar, the monkey and the snake took leave of the Brahmin. But before they left, they spoke to him about the man in the well. “Please do not help him,” said Shersingh. “If you do,” said Naagesh, “you will be in trouble yourself.” As soon as they left, the man in the well began to call out for help. Krishnan felt sorry for the man and pulled him out of the well. “Thank you for your kindness,” said the man. “I am Seth Ghanshyamdas. I am a goldsmith. If you ever need my help, don’t hesitate to visit my humble house near the city.” The goldsmith then left for home.

After some time, the Brahmin continued his journey. But he could not find any work. He then remembered Shersingh Bali, Naagesh and Seth Ghanshyamdas. He thought it was time to seek their help.

He first went to Bali. The monkey was overjoyed to see him. He gave him a warm welcome and offered him some really delicious fruits. The Brahmin told him how grateful he was. Now Krishnan went to see Shersingh, the jaguar. As soon as Shersingh saw Krishnan coming, he ran out to welcome him he gave Krishnan a beautiful gold necklace and other precious jewellery. Krishnan thanked Shersingh for the jewellery and parted. His journey had at last brought him luck, he thought. He would be able to sell the ornaments? He then remembered Seth Ghanshyamdas. He went to him. The goldsmith was glad to see Krishnan. “Here are some ornaments. Please give me a good price for them.” Seth Ghanshyamdas took the jewellery and examined it carefully. ”I shall certainly help you,” he said. “But let me show them to another goldsmith. Please wait here, I will be right back.” He then went with the ornaments. Seth at once rushed to the Palace of the king.

He said, “A man brought these ornaments to me and asked me to sell them. But they are the ornaments I made for the Prince who is missing.” “Who is this man? Where is he?” thundered the King. “This rogue must have murdered my little Prince and robbed his jewels!” “He is a Brahmin named Krishnan, Your Majesty,” replied the goldsmith, “and he is there, in my house,” The king called for his most dreaded soldiers. “Arrest the Brahmin who is in the goldsmith’s house and throw him into the darkest dungeons of the kingdom!” roared the King. The King’s guard stormed into the goldsmith’s house and seized Krishnan. Krishnan was thrown into a dark dungeon to await his execution. He then remembered the words of Naagesh, the snake. So he called out to him. Suddenly, almost like magic, Naagesh slithered his way down a narrow window into the dingy cell. “O, Lord!” hissed Naagesh, “how did you manage to get yourself arrested? Krishnan cried and then told the snake what had happened. “I have a plan.” hissed Naagesh. “I shall creep into the Queen’s room and bit her,” said Naagesh, “She will faint.

No matter what they do, she will remain asleep. The poison will remain in her body until you place your hand on her forehead,” explained Naagesh. He then left Krishnan and went to the palace. He crept into the Queen’s room and bit her. The Queen fainted. The sad news that the Queen had been bitten by a snake spread all over the Kingdom. Vaidyas came from far and near, but their medicines had no effect. No one could revive the Queen. Finally, the King declared that anyone who could cure the Queen would be handsomely rewarded. Many people went to the palace but all of them failed. “I can cure the Queen,” Krishnan told the guards. At once they took him to the palace and the King took him to the Queen. Krishnan sat beside the Queen and placed his hand on her forehead. Soon, she opened her eyes and sat up.

The King was overjoyed and shed tears of happiness. He embraced Krishnan and thanked him. “Your majesty”, said Krishnan “I was sent to prison for a crime I did not commit”. Krishnan told the king the whole story. The King was fuming with rage when he heard what the goldsmith had done. He at once had the goldsmith arrested.

The King then presented Krishnan with a large house and a thousand pieces of gold. Krishnan with a large house and a thousand pieces of gold. Krishnan sent for his family and they all lived happily ever after.

41. Why was Krishnan afraid to save Naagesh from the well?

(a) As Naagesh had threatened him with dire consequences

(b) As he thought Naagesh would eat him

(c) As he thought Naagesh would bite him once he was out of the well

(d) As he thought that Naagesh would capture him as soon as he got out of the well

(e) None of these

42. What did the king do to save the Queen after even the Vaidyas failed to revive her?

(a) He punished the snake for having harmed the Queen

(b) He announced a reward to anyone who could cure the Queen

(c) He immediately called for Krishnan to cure the Queen

(d) He asked his guards to immediately look for someone who could cure the Queen

(e) None of these

43. What did Seth Ghanshyamdas tell the King about Krishnan?

(a) That Krishnan had brought fake ornaments for selling

(b) That Krishnan was an honest Brahmin who had left his village

(c) That Krishnan had killed the Prince

(d) That Krishnan had brought those ornaments for selling which had been made for the missing Prince

(e) None of these

44. What did the King do on learning the truth about Krishnan and Seth Ghanshyamdas?

(a) He put Krishnan back in the dungeon as he still held Krishnan responsible for the Prince’s death

(b) He called for Krishnan’s wife and family

(c) He presented gold to Krishnan and also a house to live in

(d) He congratulated the snake on his efforts to save Krishnan

(e) None of these

45. What plan did Nageesh have to save Krishnan from the dungeon?

(a) That he would sneak Krishnan out of the dungeon without anyone noticing

(b) That he would bite the King and make him unconscious

(c) That he would bite Krishnan and make everyone believe that he was dead

(d) That he would enter the Queen’s chamber and scare her

(e) None of these

46. What did Bali do after seeing Krishnan at his house?

(A) He gave Krishnan directions to Shersingh’s house

(B) He welcomed Krishnan to his house

(C) He offered tasty fruits to Krishnan

(a) Only (A)          (b) Only (b)           (c) Only (c)          (d) Only (b) and (c)           (e) Only (A) and (C)

47. Why did the jaguar, the monkey and the snake tell Krishnan not to save the man in the well?

(a) As the man in the well was a goldsmith

(b) As the man in the well had cheated the snake, the monkey and the jaguar

(c) As the man in the well was a thief

(d) As the snake, the monkey and the jaguar hated the man as they had known him for a very long time

(e) None of these

48. Why did Krishnan go to meet Seth Ghanshyamdas?

(a) As he thought that Seth Ghanshyamdas could help him in selling the ornaments gifted to him by Shersingh

(b) As he knew that Seth Ghanshyamdas had contact with the King which could prove to be beneficial

(c) As Seth Ghanshyamdas had requested Krishnan to sell ornaments only to him

(d) As Krishnan was extremely fond of Seth Ghanshyamdas

(e) None of these

49. Why did Krishnan decide to leave his village?

(a) As he could not find much work in his own village and his family had to starve sometimes because of it

(b) As his family had requested him to do so

(c) As his village people had asked him to leave their village and look for work somewhere else

(d) As he wanted to search for food in a village different from his own

(e) None of these

50. What can possibly be the moral of the story?

(a) Trust oneself before trusting others     (b) A good deed never goes unrewarded

(c) You cannot change people but you can change yourself        (d) Try and try until you succeed

(e) One must be the change one wishes to see in this world

Directions (Q. 51-53): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. HUMBLE

(a) elegant        (b) Polite           (c) Modest        (d) Real            (e) Vast

52. SEEK

(a) hunt for       (b) watch for    (c) mention      (d) ask for        (e) force

53. GO

(a) report          (b) live                 (c) send           (d) leave          (e) depart

Directions (Q. 54-55): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of works printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. HANDSOMELY

(a) meagerly             (b) tidily                   (c) ugly         (d) raggedly              (e) plenty

55. CONTINUED

(a) remanded          (b) presented           (c) rested      (d) carried on          (e) stopped

 Directions (Q. 56-60): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (e) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) On touring the whole world and finding no couple who was perfectly happy, the young couple understood that it is very difficult to find perfect happiness anywhere in the world

(B) There was a young couple who led a very happy life together

(C) One day, they heard that a wise old man had come to town; he could solve all kinds of problems and guide people

(D) The wise old man told them; “Travel around the world and seek a man and a women who are perfectly happy as a couple”

(E) So the couple decided to visit the wise old man and tell him their worry

(F) The only thing that they worried about was, whether their happiness would last forever or would they too have to face problems

56. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after arrangement?

(a) A         (b) B          (c) D       (d) E       (e) F

57. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A        (b) B          (c) C         (d) D      (e) E

58. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after arrangement?

(a) B        (b) C          (c) D         (d) E      (e) F

59. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A       (b) B           (c) C         (d) D       (e) F

60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after arrangement?

(a) A       (b) B           (c) C       (d) D         (e) E

 Directions (Q. 61-65): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?

If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.

61. He told his employer of his plans to leave the business to lead a more leisure life

(a) more leisurely life              (b) many leisurely life                      (c) many leisured life

(d) more leisurely live             (e) No correction required

62. All she could think about was the beautiful dress and how she could earn enough money to buy it

(a) All she can think                 (b) All she could thought            (c) All she can thought

(d) All she can thinking          (e) No correction required

63. A young and successful executive was travelling down a neighbourhood street, going a bit to fast in his new car

(a) a bit too fastly    (b) a bit as fast        (c) a bit to fastly      (d) a bit too fast     (e) No correction required

64. Padma could convince anyone with her talks as she had the gift of the gabbing

(a) gifting of the gabbing     (b) gift of the gap     (c) gifting of the gap

(d) gift off the gap                  (e) No correction required

65. For countries undergoing a recession, large cuts in public spending seem to be the ordering of the day

(a) be the ordering of days              (b) being the order of the day        (c) be the order of the day

(d) being the ordering of days        (e) No correction required

Directions (Q. 66-70): In each questions below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These numbered as (1), (2),        (c) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer, if all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark            (e) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

66. When the young artist returned (a) / to his village, his family held a festive (b) / dinner on it’s lawn to celebrate his triumphant  (c) / homecoming. (d) / All correct (e)

67. She trusted Mira with all her heart (a) / and thus handled  (b) / over her life’s (c) / savings to her instantly. (d) / All correct (e)

68. It is difficult (a) / to see the picture  (b) / when you are inside  (c) / the frame. (d) / All correct (e)

69. Had she not suppressed (a) / all the details of her company’s project, (b) / her Company would have bagged (c) / the contract.   (d) / All correct (e)

70. The whole time she walked (a) / with her child in her arms the only thing      (b) / that worried    (c) / her was her son’s feature. (d) / All correct (e)

Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day a father of a very wealthy family (71) his son on a trip to the country with the purpose of (72) his son how the poor people live so he could be thankful for his wealth. They spent a (73) of days and nights on the far of what would be considered a (74) poor family. On their (75) from their trip, the father asked his son, “How was the trip? “It was great, Dad.” “Did you see how poor people can be?” the father asked. “Oh yeah” said the son. “So what did you (76) from the trip?” asked the father. The son answered, “I saw that we have one dog and they had four. We have a pool that (77) to the middle of our garden and they have a creek that has no end.” “We have imported lanterns in our garden and they have the stars at night.” “Our patio reaches to the front yard and they have the (78) horizon.” “We have a small piece of land to live on and they have fields that go beyond our sight.” “We have (79) who serve us, but they serve others.” “We buy our food, but they grow theirs.” “We have walls around our (80) to protect us; they have friends to protect them.” With this the boy’s father was speechless. Then his son added “Thanks dad for showing me how poor we are.”

71. (a) mould (b) showed (c) took (d) beat (e) drag
72. (a) trusting (b) showing (c) presenting (d) requesting (e) tell
73. (a) few (b) many (c) two (d) couple (e) much
74. (a) very (b) astutely (c) major (d) some (e) sorrow
75. (a) return (b) walking (c) lane (d) journey (e) leave
76. (a) believe (b) learn (c) reveal (d) think (e) saw
77. (a) leak (b) watery (c) stands (d) reaches (e) swims
78. (a) last (b) lucky (c) more (d) scene (e) whole
79. (a) relatives (b) man (c) servants (d) mother (e) computers
80. (a) pillars (b) country (c) minds (d) selves (e) property

Test – III (Quantitative Aptitude)

Directions (Q. 81-95):What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. of 504 + of 640 = ?

(a) 520            (b) 480            (c) 460          (d) 540         (e) None of these

82. 625.97 × 7.5 + 299.87 = ? – 4632.64

(a) 9627.285       (b) 9672.85         (c) 9227.285       (d) 9762.285       (e) None of these

83. 16% of 250 + 115% of 480 = ?

(a) 522            (b) 588             (c) 582            (d) 498          (e) None of these

84. 45 × 2.8+ 4.5 × 1.6 = ?

(a) 56.23         (b) 56.32         (c) 53.26       (d) 53.66           (e) None of these

85. 55% of 860 + ?% of 450 = 581

(a) 24             (b) 28             (c) 32              (d) 36                  (e) None of these

86. 1740 ÷ 12 × 4070 ÷ 110 = ?

(a) 5635        (b) 5365          (c) 5465           (d) 5445              (e) None of these

87. 42 + 385.66 + 4976.38 = ?

(a) 5234.46    (b) 5434.46      (c) 5434.66      (d) 5244.66      (e) None of these

88. 7860 ÷ 24 × 12 + 370 = ?

(a) 4200          (b) 4300           (c) 4600           (d) 4400            (e) None of these

89. 5760 ÷ 45 × 15 = ?

(a) 1890           (b) 1828           (c) 1820        (d) 1928        (e) None of these

90. 9845 – 3896 + 486 = ? – 1128

(a) 7365           (b) 7463           (c) 7536          (d) 7653        (e) None of these

91. 222+ = 529

(a) 45              (b) 2045            (c) 2025          (d) 48            (e) None of these

92.   (45)²  + (?)² = 9864 – 6720

(a) 32 (b)33 (c) 34 (d) 43 (e) None of these

93. 2520 ÷ 14 ÷ 9 = ?

(a) 22             (b) 18               (c) 20               (d) 16               (e) None of these

94. image001

(a) 45             (b) 55                (c) 54              (d) 56                (e) None of these

95. 2% of 250 + 1.8% of 400 = ?

(a) 14.8          (b) 15.75             (c) 14.75         (d) 15.2              (e) None of these

 Directions (Q. 96-100):What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

96. 11, 13, 16, 20, ?

(a) 24              (b) 26               (c) 28              (d) 27                (e) None of these

97. 7, 13, 25, 49, ?

(a) 99             (b) 97                (c) 89              (d) 87                (e) None of these

98. 608, 304, 152, 76, ?

(a) 39            (b) 36            (c) 38             (d) 37           (e) None of these

99. 8, 6, 20, 63, ?

(a) 256         (b) 252         (c) 246            (d) 242         (e) None of these

100. 5, 6, 10, 19, ?

(a) 28           (b) 37              (c) 36            (d) 35            (e) None of these

101. Difference between the digits of a two digit number is 5 and the digit in the unit’s place is six times the digit in the ten’s place. What is the number?

(a) 27           (b) 72           (c) 16            (d) 61            (e) None of these

102. Find the average of the following set of numbers. 132, 148, 164, 128, 120, 136

(a) 142         (b) 136         (c) 138          (d) 144         (e) None of these

103. Kriya deposits an amount of Rs. 65800 to obtain in a simple interest at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. for 4 years. What total amount will Kriya get at the end of 4 years?

(a)Rs.102648           (b) Rs.115246             (c) Rs.125578            (d) Rs. 110324          (e) None of these

104. Populations of two villages X and Y are in the ratio of 5 : 7 respectively. If the population of village Y increase by 25000 and the population of Village X remains unchanged the respective ratio of their populations becomes 25 : 36. What is the population of village X?

(a) 625000       (b) 675000        (c) 875000     (d) 900000     (e) None of these

105. 56% of a number is less than its 72% by 56. What is 70% of that number?

(a) 300             (b) 235         (c) 240          (d) 350         (e) None of these

106. A 240 metre long train crosses a 300 metre long platform in 27 seconds. What is the speed of the train in kmph?

(a) 66         (b) 60           (c) 76                 (d) 64                   (e) None of these

107. Vandana sells an article for Rs. 3240 and earns a profit of 20%. What is the cost price of the article?

(a) Rs. 2800        (b) Rs. 2820        (c) Rs. 2750         (d) Rs. 2700        (e) None of these

108. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 7 days. In how many days will 28 men complete the same wrok?

(a) 6 days     (b) 8 days     (c) 3 days      (d) 4 days     (e) None of these

109. Sum of five consecutive even numbers is 380. What is the second number in ascending order?

(a) 76            (b) 78           (c) 74              (d) 72                (e) None of these

110. Cost of 6 dozen apples and 8 dozen bananas is Rs. 1400. What will be the cost of 15 dozen apples and 20 dozen bananas?

(a) Rs. 3200              (b) Rs. 3500         (c) Rs. 3600            (d) Rs. 4200                 (e) None of these

111. Beena and Meena started a boutique investing amounts of Rs. 35000 and Rs. 56000 respectively. If Beena’s share in the profit earned by them is Rs. 45000, what is the total profit earned?

(a) Rs. 81000           (b) Rs. 127000         (c) Rs. 72000           (d) Rs. 117000         (e) None of these

112. Simple interest accrued on an amount in eight years at 11 p.c.p.a. is Rs. 57200. What was the principal amount?

(a) Rs. 72000           (b) Rs. 82000           (c) Rs. 75000           (d) Rs. 65000           (e) None of these

113. Sharma invested an amount of Rs. 25000 in fixed deposit at compound interest 8 p.c.p.a. for two years. What amount Mr. Sharma will get on maturity?

(a) Rs. 28540           (b) Rs. 29160           (c) Rs. 29240           (d) Rs. 28240           (e) None of these

114. Four-seventh of a number is equal to 40% of another number. What is the ratio between the first number and the second number respectively?

(a) 5:4                          (b) 4:5                      (c) 10:7                    (d) 7:10                   (e) None of these

115. Nandkishore gives 35% of the money he had  to his wife and gave 50% of the money he had to his sons. Remaining amount of Rs. 11250 he kept for himself. What was the total amount of money Nandkishore had?

(a) Rs. 63750           (b) Rs. 75000           (c) Rs. 73650           (d) Rs. 72450           (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.

Number of Students studying five different disciplines from five Institutes

Discipline?Institute ? Arts Commerce Science Management Computer Science
A 350 260 450 140 300
B 240 320 400 180 320
C 460 300 360 160 380
D 440 480 420 120 340
E 280 360 340 200 330

116. Number of studying Commerce from Institute D is what percent of the total number of students studying all the disciplines together from this institute?

(a) 25.66    (b) 26.66      (c) 34.67      (d) 32.76      (e) None of these

117. What is the average number of students studying all disciplines together from Institute E?

(a) 312         (b) 310         (c) 302          (d) 304         (e) None of these

118. What is the ratio between total number of students studying science from Institute C and D together and the total number of students studying Computer science from these two Institutes respectively?

(a) 13:12       (b) 12:13       (c) 13:15       (d) 15:13       (e) None of these

119. What is the average number of students studying Commerce from all the Institutes together?

(a) 356         (b) 360         (c) 348          (d) 340         (e) None of these

120. Total number of students studying Arts from institutes A and B together is approximately what percent of the total number of students studying Computer Science from these two institutes?

(a) 84           (b) 85             (c) 88           (d) 90             (e) 95

Part  – IV (Reasoning Ability)

121. In a certain code BROWN is written as 531@% and MEAN is written as 26©%. How is ROBE written in that code?

(a) 3@16       (b) 3516        (c) 3156        (d) 3©16       (e) None of these

122. In a row of forty students R is fifth from the right end and there are 10 students between R and D. what is D’s position from the left end of the row?

(a) 26th         (b) 23rd         (c) 24th          (d) 25th         (e) Data inadequate

123. Among A, B, C, D and E each having scored different marks in an examination, B scored more than C and E and less than A and D. C’s marks are not the lowest. Who scored the lowest marks?

(a) D   (b) C   (c) B   (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

124. How many pairs of digits are there in the number 9431658 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

125. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters VLEI using each letter only once in each word?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

126. How many such pairs are letters are there in the word OVERWHELM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

127. What should come next in the following letter series?

A C E G I K M O B D F H J L N A C E G I K M B D F H J L A

(a) B            (b) C            (c) F             (d) D             (e) None of these

128. In a certain code ORBITAL is written as CSPHMBU. How is CHARGER written in that code?

(a) BIDQSFH          (b) BIDSSFH        (c) BIDQQDF        (d) DIBQSFH      (e) None of these

129. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) 196           (b) 256            (c) 529             (d) 576            (e) 324

130. Four of the following five are like in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one does not belong to that group?

(a) RPN         (b) WSU        (c) HDF         (d) LHJ          (e) QMO

131. If ‘+’ means ‘divided by’; ‘-‘ means ‘added to’; ‘×’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘+’ means ‘multiplied by’; then 26 – 15 + 5 × 4 ÷ 2 = ?

(a) 15              (b) 20             (c) 25                (d) 18              (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 132-137): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

R 5 # 3 $ M D P 1 4 F © A 6 E W J 2 @ d K 8 Q 7 % U T I * V 9

132. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the nineteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?

(a) D              (b) U              (c) ©               (d) d             (e) None of these

133. What should come in the following series based on the above arrangement?

53$ P4F 6WJ d8Q ?

(a) UI*          (b) UT*         (c) UIV          (d) UTV         (e) None of these

134. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

135. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the sixteenth from the right end?

(a) F               (b) W             (c) J               (d) d                (e) None of these

136. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

137. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

Directions (Q. 138-143): In the following questions, the symbols d, $, *, @ and © are used with the following meanings illustrated.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor greater than Q’

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’

‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’

In each question three statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II & III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.

138. Statements:

B © N, N @ R, F * R

Conclusions:

I. B © R               II. F * N            III. R $ B

(a) Only I and II are true         (b) Only I and III are true    (c) Only Ii and III are true

(d) All I, II and III are true      (e) None of these

139. Statements:

D $ M, M * B, B d J

Conclusions:

I. J © D         II. B @ D            III. J @ M

(a) Only I and II are true          (b) Only I and III are true    (c) Only II and III are true

(d) All I, II and III are true       (e) None of these

140. Statements:

F * T, T d N, N @ R

Conclusions:

I. R $ T          II. N © F         III. F $ R

(a) None is true                (b) Only I is true             (c) Only II is true

(d) Only III is true           (e) Only II and III are true

141. Statements:

W d K, K © F, F $ M

Conclusions:

I. M © K          II. W @ F          III. F @ W

(a) Only I is true       (b) Only Ii is true      (c) Only III is true

(d) Only II and III are true                           (e) None is true

142. Statements:

M @ D, D d K, K © R

Conclusions:

I. R $ M              II. K d M           III. K $ M

(a) Only I is true       (b) Only II is true      (c) Only III is true     (d) Only II and III are true

(e) Only either II or III is true

143. Statements: 

F @ T, T d K, K * D

Conclusions:

I. D @ F                II. F @ K                III. D @ T

(a) Only II and III are true    (b) Only I and III are true    (c) Only I and II are true

(d) All I, II and III are true   (e) None of these 

Directions (Q. 144-149): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, A, D, Q, T, M, R and B are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is third to the left of T who is fifth to the right of P. A is third to the right of B who is second to the right of D. Q is second to the left of M.

144. Who is second to the right of M?

(a) B                (b) R               (c) T             (d) Q                                       (e) None of these

145. Who is to the immediate right of D?

(a) M              (b) Q               (c) B             (d) Data inadequate              (e) None of these

146. Who is third to the right of P?

(a) D              (b) M               (c) R             (d) Data inadequate              (e) None of these

147. Who is second to the left of D?

(a) A              (b) Q                (c) B              (d) P           (e) Data inadequate

148. In which of the following pairs the first person is sitting to the immediate right of the second person?

(a) DM          (b) BT           (c) RA           (d) PQ           (e) PA

149. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A?

(a) PT           (b) PB           (c) TQ           (d) PD            (e) None of these

 Directions (Q. 150-155): In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (d) and (e) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

150. Statements:

Some bikes are cars

Some cars are trains

Some trains are buses

Conclusions:

I. Some buses are cars

II. Some trains are bikes

III. Some buses are bikes

(a) None follows

(b) Only I follows

(c) Only II follows

(d) Only III follows

(e) Only I and II follow

151. Statements:

All dogs are cats

Some cats are rats

All rats are mats

Conclusions:

I. some mats are cats

II. Some mats are dogs

III. Some rats are cats

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Only III follows

(d) Only I and III follow

(e) None of these

152. Statements:

All cups are benches

Some benches are drums

All drums are cups

Conclusions:

I. All cups are benches

II. Some benches are drums

III. All drums are kites

(a) None follows

(b) Only I follows

(c) Only II follows

(d) Only III follows

(e) Only II and III follow

153. Statements:

Some boxes are walls

No wall is road

All roads are rivers

Conclusions:

I. Some rivers are walls

II. Some roads are boxes

III. No wall is river

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only either I or III follows

(c) Only III follows

(d) Only II follows

(e) Only II and III follow

154. Statements:

Some tables are chairs

All chairs are houses

All houses are tents

Conclusions:

I. All houses are chairs

II. Some tents are chairs

III. Some houses are tables

(a) Only I and II follow

(b) Only I and III follow

(c) Only II and III follow

(d) All I, II and III follow

(e) None of these

155. Statements:

All pens are sticks

All sticks are rings

All rings are rods

Conclusions:

I. Some rings are pens

II. Some rods are sticks

III. Some rods are pens

(a) Only I and II follow

(b) Only I and III follow

(c) Only II and III follow

(d) All I, II and III follow

(e) None of these

Directions (156-160): In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the questions or may be related to a trivial aspect of the questions.

156. Statements:

Should the government deregulate the retail price of petrol, diesel and cooking gas and allow the price to be driven by market conditions?

Arguments:

I. Yes, this will largely help the oil companies to sell their products at competitive price.

II. No, the general public cannot afford market driven prices of these products.

III. Yes, government needs to stop subsidizing these products and channelize the money for developmental projects.

(a) Only I and II are strong

(b) Only I and III are strong

(c) Only II and III are strong

(d) All I, II and III are strong

(e) None of these

157. Statements: Should the government take over all the private passenger transport companies across the country.

Arguments:

I. Yes, this should be done as the government runs the railways

II. No, government does not have expertise to handle such operations.

III. Yes, this way general public can be taken out of the clutches of the private transport companies.

(a) Only I is strong

(b) Only I and II strong

(c) Only II and III strong

(d) All I, II and III are strong

(e) None of these

158. Statement:

Should the institutes of higher learning’s in India like IITs and IIMs be made totally free from government control?

Arguments:

I. Yes, such institutes in the developed countries are run by non-government agencies.

II. No, government needs to regulate functions of these institutes for national interest.

III. No, these institutes are not capable to take policy decisions for smooth functioning.

(a) Only I is strong

(b) Only II is strong

(c) Only III is strong

(d) Only I and III are strong

(e) None of these

159. Statement:

Should the parliament elections in India be held on a single day throughout the country?

Arguments:

I. Yes, this is the only way to handle such elections.

II. Yes, this will help the com-mission to concentrate on a single day for election related issues.

III. No, some other countries hold such elections spread over several days.

(a) None is strong

(b) Only I is strong

(c) Only II is strong

(d) Only in is strong

(e) Only I and II are strong

160. Statement:

Should there be a common pay structure of the central government and all state government employees in the country?

Arguments:

I. No, each state government should have the freedom to decide the pay structure of its employees.

II. No, the workload and responsibilities of central government and state government employees differ and hence there should be different pay structure.

III. Yes, all are government employees and hence they should be treated equally irrespective of their working with central government or any state government.

(a) Only I is strong

(b) Only I and III are strong

(c) Only III is strong

(d) Only II and III are strong

(e) None of these

Part – V (Computer Knowledge)

161. CPU stands for
(a) Computer Processing Unit (b) Central Processing Unit (c) Computer Protection Unit (d) Central Processing Upload (e) None of these
162. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into ______
(a) Websites (b) information (c) programs (d) objects (e) None of these
163. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into _______
(a) Machine language (b) An algorithm (c) A debugged program (d) Java (e) None of these
164. What is correcting errors in a program called?
(a) Compiling (b) Debugging (c) Grinding (d) Interpreting (e) None of these
165. The _______ of a system includes the programs or instructions
(a) hardware (b) icon (c) information (d) software (e) None of these
166. Back up of the data files will help to prevent _______
(a) loss of confidentiality (b) duplication of data (c) virus infection (d) loss of data (e) None of these
167. Text in column is generally aligned _________
(a) justified (b) right (c) center (d) left (e) None of these
168. The background of any Word document ________
(a) is always white colour (b) is the colour you preset under the Options menu (c) is always the same for the entire document (d) can have any colour you choose (e) None of these
169. In order to save an existing document with a different name you need to _______
(a) Retype the document and give it a different name (b) Use the Save as command (c) Copy and paste the original document to a new document and then save (d) Use Windows explorer to copy the document to a different location and then rename it (e) None of these
170. Which one of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(a) Database (b) Document processor (c) Graphics package (d) Spreadsheet (e) None of these
171. What would you do to highlight a word? You position the cursor next to the word, and then _____
(a) Drag mouse while holding button down (b) Click mouse once (c) Roll mouse around (d) Roll and then click mouse (e) None of these
172. A ______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm
(a) programming language (b) syntax (c) programming structure (d) logic chart (e) None of these
173. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(a) TXT (b) WRD (c) FIL (d) IDOC (e) None of these
174. Which is the part of the computer system that one can physically touch?
(a) Data (b) Operating systems (c) hardware (d) software (e) None of these
175. In page preview mode ____
(a) You can see all pages of your document (b) You can only see the page you are currently working (c) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics (d) You can only see the title page of your document (e) None of these
176. Cross selling is very effective in the sale of one of the following ____
(a) Debit cards (b) Credit cards (c) Internet Banking (d) Auto loans (e) None of these
177. Cross selling means ______
(a) One salesman selling to another salesman (b) selling across territories (c) selling across countries (d) selling additional products to existing customers (e) All of these
178. Target market for Debit Cards is ________
(a) All existing account holders (b) All sales persons (c) All NRI’s (d) All HNI’s (e) All of these
179. Market Penetration can be possible through _____
(a) more calls to the same buyers (b) more calls to many buyers (c) surrogate marketing (d) alternate marketing (e) All of these
180. Cross selling can be resorted to by _____
(a) all sales persons (b) all employees (c) all employers (d) outsourced agencies (e) All service providers
181. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym
(a) CD (b) DVD (c) ROM (d) RW (e) None of these
182. _______ is processed by the computer into information
(a) Data (b) Numbers (c) Alphabets (d) Pictures (e) None of these
183. A ________ is an electronic devices that process data, converting it into information
(a) computer (b) processor (c) case (d) stylus (e) None of these
184. Market innovation means _______
(a) Design new products (b) New styles of marketing (c) new ideas in sales steps (d) Only (a) and (b) (e) All (a), (b) and (c)
185. File extensions are used in order to ___
(a) name the file (b) ensure the file name is not lost (c) identify the file (d) identify the file type (e) None of these
186. Market Penetration connotes ________
(a) Covering a wide area of the Market for sales (b) Entering the buyers houses (c) Entering the sellers’ houses (d) Entering all shops and business houses (e) All of these
187. The most common type of storage devices are ______
(a) persistent (b) optical (c) magnetic (d) flash (e) None of these
188. SME means _____
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises (b) Small Marketing Enterprises (c) Small Scale Marketing Entities (d) Small And Medium Establishments (e) The whole organization sells
190. Savings Accounts with zero balance can be opened for ______
(a) persons below BPL (b) under Financial Inclusion scheme (c) Students (d) As per Bank’s Policies (e) None of these
191. “Out sourcing” means service rendered by ________
(a) outside agencies (b) other departments of the company (c) employee, other than the sales persons (d) marketing departments (e) All of these
192. In modern day marketing, the benefits of selling extend to _____
(a) Only product and services (b) Only after sales services (c) Lifelong relationship with the buyer (d) All of these (e) None of these
193. One of the following is not a target group for SME loans ________
(a) all professionals (b) large industries (c) truck operators (d) beauty parlours (e) hotels and restaurants
194. The performance of a salesperson can be enhanced by _______
(a) increasing the sales incentives (b) increasing the number of products to be sold (c) appropriate training (d) All of these (e) None of these
195. Team building is required _________
(a) Only for lead generation (b) only for after sales service (c) for cross selling (d) All of these (e) None of these
196. For sustained relationship with the buyer, one of the following is necessary
(a) Continuity (b) Consistency (c) Understanding (d) Empathy (e) All of these
197. Sales Promotion involves – Find the incorrect option _______
(a) Building Product Awareness (b) Creating Interest (c) Providing Information (d) Designing new products (e) None of these
198. Target market for Home loans is _____
(a) all builders (b) all housing societies (c) agriculturists (d) All of these (e) None of these
199. Lead generation is ______
(a) a pre-sales function (b) a function of the customer (c) a function of the manufacturing department (d) a post sales function (e) All of these
200. Financial Inclusion means ______
(a) Opening Accounts of Finance Companies (b) Financial Analysis of balance sheet figures (c) Opening Accounts of HNI’s (d) Opening Accounts of NRI’s (e) Opening Accounts of underprivileged persons

 Answer key:

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (e)
9. (c) 10. (e) 11. (a) 12. (e) 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (a) 16. (d)
17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (e) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (e) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (e) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (e) 46. (d) 47. (e) 48. (a)
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (e) 56. (a)
57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (e) 60. (c) 61. (a) 62. (e) 63. (d) 64. (b)
65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (e) 69. (e) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (b)
73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (e) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (e) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (b)
89. (e) 90. (e) 91. (c) 92. (e) 93. (c) 94. (e) 95. (d) 96. (e)
97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (d) 101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (a)
105. (e) 106. (e) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (b) 111. (d) 112. (d)
113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (a) 119. (e) 120. (e)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (e) 124. (c) 125. (e) 126. (e) 127. (b) 128. (a)
129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (e) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (b)
137. (b) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (c) 141. (e) 142. (d) 143. (a) 144. (c)
145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (e) 149. (e) 150. (a) 151. (d) 152. (c)
153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (b) 157. (e) 158. (b) 159. (a) 160. (c)
161. (b) 162. (b) 163. (a) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (d)
169. (b) 170. (d) 171. (e) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (c) 175. (a) 176. (b)
177. (d) 178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (a) 181. (d) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (e)
185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (b) 190. (d) 191. (a) 192. (b)
193. (a) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (c) 197. (d) 198. (a) 199. (a) 200. (a)

Part–I: General Awareness

1. Which of the following nations is found at the top of the “World’s Green Index”, compiled by various global agencies jointly?
(a) China (b) India (c) USA (d) Britain (e) Japan
2. Which of the following agencies has estimated that by the year 2015 about a quarter of India’s population will be living in extreme poverty?
(a) Asian Development Bank (b) World Bank (c) U N Economic & Social Council (d) U N Food and Agricultural Organisation (e)International Monetary Fund
3. As per the reports of the survey conducted by various agencies jointly, which of the following countries is adjudged as the “Most Favoured Nation” for back office support to the world’s major multinationals?
(a) China (b) South Africa (c) Singapore (d) India (e) None of these
4. The ‘H1N1’ virus is responsible for the outbreak of which of the following in the world?
(a) AIDS (b) Swine Flue (c) Polio (d) T.B (e)Chikungunya
5. The present Lok Sabha is formed after the——–
(a) 13th general elections (b) 14th general elections (c) 15th general elections (d) 16th general elections (e) None of these
6. The govt. of India announced a special relief package of several thousand crores of rupees for which of the following sections of our society?
(a) Senior Citizens (b) Women Employees of Central Government (c) Farmers (d) Workers in unorganized sectors (e) All of these
7. As per the news paper reports, India is in the process of purchasing some “mid-air refuellers” are being procured for which of the following establishments?
(a) Indian Airlines & Air India (b) India Air Force (c) Ministry of Civil Aviation (d) Pawan Hans (e) Ministry of Surface Transport
8. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the number of India’s wireless subscribers has become about 400 million. Which of the following agencies, as a regulator, has published this data?
(a) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (b) MTNL (c) Department of Telecommunication Services (DTS) (d)Association of Cellular Service Providers (e) None of these
9. The President of India in her first speech in the joint session of the current parliament had said that every family living below poverty line would get 25 kgs of wheat/rice per month at @ Rs 3 per kg. To achieve this she recommended enacting of which of the following Acts?
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (b) National Agricultural Commodities & Warehousing Act (c) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Act (d) National Minimum Wages Act (e) National Food Security Act
10. Late Y.S. Rajasekhar Reddy who passed away a few months back was holding which of the following positions?
(a) Chief Minister of a state (b) Union Cabinet Minister (c) Governor of a State (d) Chief Secretary of a State (e) India’s permanent Representative in the UNO
11. Who amongst the following is not a member of the present Union Cabinet?
(a) Ambika Soni (b) Kamalnath (c) Rahul Gandhi (d)Jyotiraditya Scindia (e) Vilasrao Deshmukh
12. The market value of all final goods and services produced and/or made with the geographical boundaries of a country in a year is known as———
(a) Gross Domestic Product (b) Gross National Saving (c) Gross Fiscal Deficit (d) Gross Domestic Capital Formation (e) None of these
13. Organisation of workers in which of the following groups has proved a very effective way of providing micro finance by banks to the rural people and poor in India?
(a) Self Help Groups (b) Vriksha Mitras (c) Shiksha Sevaks (d) Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) (e) Link Workers
14. Almost all Banks in India are running special schemes for providing banking services to rural poor. This concept is popularly known as———-
(a) Faster Growth (b) Trade Finance (c) SME Finance (d) Investment Banking (e) Financial Inclusion
15. India is not a member of which of the following organizations?
(a) SAARC (b) WTO (c) BRIC (d) UNO (e) OPEC
16. Which of the following things is done in the Union Budget 2009-10, to help “Tax payers” in India?
(a) Mobile phones, branded jewellery and leather products will cost less as the Custom duty is reduced on them (b) Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is increased by 30% (c) Farm Loan Waiver scheme is extended to 31st December 2009 (d) Fringe Benefit Tax abolished (e) None of these
17. The Government of India has increased its allocation of funds to which of the following schemes by 144% in current union budget, as it has proved to be a very popular scheme amongst the rural job seekers?
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (b) National Food for Work Programme (c) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (e) None of these
18. Special emphasis by the Govt of India on which of the following will certainly improve the performance of the agriculture sector in country within a short span of time?
(a) Focused Public Distribution System (b) Sanitation & Health Services (c) Rural Employment (d) Better irrigation facilities (e) All of these
19. Which of the following Acts is enacted to help the Union Govt. to manage its budgeted finances and finances and fiscal deficit in a very disciplined manner?
(a) The Competition Act (b) The Baking Regulation Act (c) The Negotiable Instrument Act (d) Foreign Exchange Management Act (e) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
20. The Reserve bank of India is in the process of selling its take in which of the following agencies/ organizations?
(a) NABARD (b) Food Corporation of India (c) Steel Authority of India Ltd (d) Bombay Stock Exchange (e) None of these
21. Which of the following is Bank Rate at present?
(a) 3% (b) 4% (c) 5% (d) 6% (e) None of these
22. The war between Russia and which of the following nations in 2008 is known as “August war”?
(a) Georgia (b) Iran (c) Slovakia (d) Afghanistan (e) None of these
23. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Ministry of Rural Development?
(a) Mid Day Meal Scheme (b) Janani Suraksha Yojana (c) Know India Programme (d) National Food for Work Programme (e) None of these
24. Late Norman Borlaug who passed away recently, was famous for his contribution to which of the following in India?
(a) Operation Flood (b) Operation black Board (c) Cooperative Movement in Milk production (d) Green Revolution (e) None of these
25. Which of the following taxes is not levied by the Government of India?
(a) Income Tax (b) Professional Tax (c) Excise Duty (d) Dividend Distribution Tax (e) Capital Gain Tax
26. Which of the following schemes is launched to make Indian cities free from slums in days to come?
(a) Indira Awas Yojana (b) Bharat Nirman (c) Rajiv Awas Yojana (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal mission (e) None of these
27. Which of the following books is written by Namita Gokhale?
(a) A Himalayan Love Story (b) Soul Mountain (c) A New World (d) The Last Hero (e) None of these
28. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Badminton?
(a) Double Fault (b) Punch (c) Follow on (d) Tee (e) None of these
29. Cashew nut is not produced as a major product in which of the following states?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Goa (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Orissa (e) Andhra Pradesh
30. Who amongst the following was awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2009?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Abhishek Jha (c) Saina Nehwal (d) M.C. Mary Kom (e) None of these
31. Which of the following awards is not given by the Government of India?
(a) Bharat Ratna (b) Padma Vibhushan (c) Ashok Chakra (d) Kalinga Prize (e) All are given by the Government of India
32. Which of the following is not a banking related term?
(a) Discount (b) Credit (c) Reynolds Number (d) Post Dated Cheque (e) Time Deposit
33. Who amongst the following was a famous author and director?
(a) C.V. Raman (b) Vijay Tendulkar (c) Bidhanchandra Roy (d) Bismillah Khan (e) Vilayat Khan
34. Who amongst the following can never be a winner of the Nobel Prize?
(a) An Author (b) A Medical Doctor (c) An Economist (d) A Physicist (e) A world famous Musician
35. Which of the following is not the name of an irrigation system prevalent in India?
(a) Sprinkler System (b) Silage System (c) Drip System (d) Furrow System (e) Canal System
36. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(a) Bombay Gold Cup (b) Davis Cup (c) Ranji Trophy (d) Vizzy Trophy (e) Nehru Trophy
37. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar?
(a) By God’s Decree (b) Freedom From Fear (c) Sunny Days (d) Story of My Life (e) None of these
38. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related with the game of cricket?
(a) Deodhar Trophy (b) Irani Trophy (c) Subroto Cup (d) Ranji Trophy (e) ICC Trophy
39. Deep Joshi was given Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2009 for his contribution in the field of———
(a) Literature (b) Sports (c) Cinema (d) Journalism (e) Rural Development
40. Which of the following operation is conducted after a gap of every ten years?
(a) Economic Survey (b) Estimates of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) (c) Compilation of Human Development Report (d) Census of Small Scale Enterprises (e) General Census

Part–II: General English

Directions (41-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once a king saw some young boys pelting stones on a snake. He prevented the boys from killing the snake. Thus, he saved its life. The snake, which was the king of the Snake World, thanked him and favoured him with a supernatural gift by which he could understand the language of any animal. But he warned him that the divulgence of the secret would cost him his life.
One day, when the king was sitting in his garden and enjoying breakfast, a small portion of the sweet fell on the ground. Soon he heard an ant shouting, “My God, what a big wagon-ful of sweet has fallen and there is none to consume it. Ah! I can enjoy all, now.” Hearing this, the king smiled and chuckled. The queen, who was sitting next to him, was curious to note the changing countenance of the king. She asked him to tell her the reason for the smile. But the king kept silent as the divulgence of the secret would cost him his life. The queen felt offended and thought that there was something which the king did not want to tell in public.
At night, when the king was relaxing in the verandah, the queen repeated the same question and demanded the answer. The king then told her that the divulgence of that secret would cost him his life. Nonetheless, the queen persisted by throwing tantrums. Still when the king kept his silence, she attacked his self-respect by calling him a “liar” and muttered that all his expressions of endearment like You are dearer to me than my very life” – were nothing but a pack of lies. The king, however, could not bear the attacks on his self- respect and eventually conceded to divulge the secret on the following day in the royal, garden; and made up his mind to sacrifice his life.
A donkey overheard the king’s resolve and decided to save him, because the king was righteous. So, he picked up one of his friends – the goat and they both decided to save the king.
Next day, when the king and his retinues were on the way to the royal park, the donkey and the goat stood conversing on one side of the path. The king overheard the goat saying to the donkey, “You are a fool but not as big a fool as is the king.” Having heard so, the king was curious to know as to why was he being called a “bigger fool”. So, he asked the goat “Why do you think that I am a bigger fool than a donkey?” The goat replied, “Look O king! Today you are going to die to please your wife; but tomorrow when your wife inherits all your wealth to enjoy it with a new mate would she ever think of you?” This statement of the goat opened the eyes of the king and he realised his folly. He then reconsidered his decision to die to please his queen and resolved not to sacrifice his precious life. So, he said to the goat. “Pray, then tell me what to do as I am now committed to tell her the secret”.
The goat said, “If you want to come out of the mess then go and tell her that you are ready to reveal to her the secret on the condition that she agrees to receive one hundred lashes on her back”.
When the king reached the garden he said to the queen, “I am now ready to tell you the secret on the condition that you are willing to receive one hundred lashes in return”. The queen considered the condition a joke and nodded in agreement. The king then waved at one of his guards to lash her with all his power. And no sooner than she received two lashes she wailed and shouted “No ! Stop, do not lash me! I don’t want to know the secret now”.
The king then said scornfully. “You wanted to know the secret at the cost of my life; but now you don’t want to know because you have to save your skin. You deserve a few more lashes.” But before he could order his man to give her a few more lashes, the king’s trustworthy minister intervened and requested him to forgive her. Thus, the queen was not lashed further, yet she never received the same honour and dignity.

41. Why did the snake give a gift to the King?

(a) As the king did not kill the snake

(b) As the snake liked the king a lot

(c) As the king was an honourable man and wanted the gift

(d) As the king had saved the snake from a few boys who were trying to kill it with stones

(e) None of these

42. What can possibly be the moral of the story?

(a) A stitch in time saves nine

(b) Honesty is the best policy

(c) Promises are meant to be broken

(d) Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder

(e) Do onto others as you would want others to do to you

43. Why did the queen agree to the condition laid down by the king in order to know the secret?

(a) As she was very strong physically and would endure the condition laid down

(b) As she thought that the king was only joking and would not actually do what he had said

(c) As the condition laid down by the king was not too difficult

(d) As she desperately wanted to know the secret and would do anything in return

(e) None of these

44. Why did the King chuckle?

(a) As he had heard an ant talking about the sweet fallen on the ground

(b) As he was enjoying his breakfast a lot

(c) As he knew that the queen could not hear the animals talk

(d) As he was very proud of his newly acquired power

(e) None of these

45. Which of the following words can be used to describe the queen?

(A) Loyal (B) Selfish (C) Prying

(a) Only (a)                           (b) Only (b)               (c) Only (b) and (c)

(d) Only (a) and (c)             (e) All the three (a), (b) and (c)

46. Why did the queen not receive the same honour and dignity as she had before?

(a) As the king had left her and she was no longer the queen

(b) As she had cared for her own life but not for the life of the king

(c) As she had told the secret to everyone in the kingdom

(d) As she wanted to punish the king

(e) None of these

47. What explanation did the goat give to the king for calling him a bigger fool than a donkey?

(a) That the king had been wrong to tell the secret to the queen

(b) That the king was not ruling his kingdom very well

(c) That once the king had sacrificed his life for his queen, she would find someone else and enjoy the king’s wealth

(d) That the king was being taken advantage of by his subjects and that he was unaware of it

(e) None of these

48. What was the condition on which the king agreed to tell the secret to the queen?

(a) That the king would tell her the secret only if she left him for another man

(b) That once she was told the secret she would have to be killed

(c) That the queen would have to talk to animals once she knew the secret

(d) That the queen could never tell anyone else about the secret

(e) None of these

49. Which of the following can be said about the king?

(A) He was noble (B) He was impatient (C) He was selfless

(a) Only (a)                    (b) Only (c)                (c) Only (a) and (b)

(d) Only (a) and (c)     (e) All the three (a), (b) and (c)

50. Why did the king agree to tell the secret to the queen in the first place?

(a) As the queen had been rally persistent and had said that the king was dishonest

(b) As he had wanted to share the secret with someone for a very long time

(c) As he did not value his life much

(d) As he knew that by telling the queen his secret she too would get the same powers as him

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 51-53): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
51. FAVOURED
(a) Biased (b) Witnessed (c) Liked (d) Demanded (e) Presented
52. CONDITION
(a) Form (b) Clause (c) State (d) Situation (e) Circumstance
53. PELTING
(a) Throwing (b) Practising (c) Dropping (d) Wasting (e) Sticking
Directions (Q. 54-55): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
54. CONCEDED
(a) Realized (b) Gave up (c) Resisted (d) Relaxed (e) Surrendered
55. RIGHTEOUS
(a) Scared (b) Wrong (c) Honourable (d) Immoral (e) Weird

Directions (Q. 56-60) Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
(A) So the next day when the birds had flown off to lock for food, the bird catcher spread his net under the tree.
(B) One day a bird catcher wandering through the forest came upon a banyan tree where a flock of Pigeons rested.
(C) But as they were very clever, they flapped their wings together, lifted the net off the ground and flew away with it.
(D) He knew that if he managed to catch even half the pigeons, he would be able to sell them in the market for a very good price
(E) To their shock, they all realized that they had landed right into the net that the bird catcher had set for them.
(F) That evening when the pigeons came back, they flew down together to the foot of the banyan tree

56. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
57. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F
58. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F
59. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Directions (Q. 61-65): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.
61. He was a men of few words but was very intelligent and respected by one and all
(a) man of few words (b) man of few wordings (c) men of few word (d) man to few words (e) No correction required
62. She was feeling very asleepy today as she had not slept very well the previous night
(a) Very asleep (b) very sleeping (c) very sleepy (d) very sleep (e) No correction required
63. She waited with bated breath as the names of the top rankers were announced.
(a) As bated breathe (b) For beating breath (c) With beated breath (d) To beat breath (e) No correction required
64. As Veena got ready to leave for the exam her mother kissed her and wished her lucky
(a) Wish her luckily (b) Wishes her luck (c) Wishing her luckily (d) Wished her luck (e) No correction required
65. He was so tired that he could barely keeping his eyes open while driving
(a) Can barely keep (b) Could barely keep (c) Can bare keep (d) Could bear to keep (e) No correction required

Directions (Q. 66-70): In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

66. Even though the state has been witnessing (a)/ deaths on a daily basis, (b)/ it has not hindered (c)/ the festivity spirit of the people (d)/ All correct (e)

67. The player was arrested (a)/ for kicking and (b)/ punching a driver outside (c)/ a fast food outlet in the city (d)/ All correct (e)

68. The clever disciple had decided (a)/ to proved his skills by (b)/ reciting the holy (c)/ verse from the book (d)/ All correct (e)

69. In just one year Beena has gained (a)/ around eight kilograms and (b)/ doctors fear she might be prune (c)/ to heart related ailments (d)/ All correct (e)

70. On being threatened by the king’s servants (a)/ the poor gardener (b)/ blurted out that he had stolen (c)/ the jewels (d)/ All correct (e)

Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once, there (71) a rich businessman, who was smart and young. He was fond of gambling. One day, on a business tour, he was (72) for a game of gambling by a veteran gambler who was reputed as ‘invincible’ in the game. When the game was on, he noticed that his (73) had resorted to foul play by stealthily swallowing the dice and pretending it to be lost. This made the young man lose the game. The young man, however, thought of (74) a lesson to the other gambler. So, when he returned home he smeared the dice with poison and dried them carefully. Next day, he went to his opponent and (75) him for a fresh round of game. The other gambler again stealthily put the dice into his (76). But once again, he was detected by the young gambler, who swallowed is but poison and not the dice.” The cheat writhed in (77) as the poison took effect. As the young man did not have any (78) to kill the fellow gambler, he took out some antidote from his bag and made him drink, which induced vomiting. This (79) the other fellow. He came back to his senses and never (80) to deceive others in the game of dice.

71. (a) Danced (b) Lived (c) Placed (d) Is (e) Stayed
72. (a) Made (b) Crying (c) Told (d) Struck (e) Invited
73. (a) Opposite (b) Self (c) Man (d) Opponent (e) Play
74. (a) Predicting (b) Saying (c) Asking (d) Teaching (e) Making
75. (a) Slapped (b) Smelled (c) Challenged (d) Request (e) Killed
76. (a) Pocket (b) Throat (c) Sleeve (d) Board (e) Mouth
77. (a) Happiness (b) Pleasure (c) Pain (d) Room (e) Hurting
78. (a) Intention (b) Weapon (c) Where (d) Means (e) Body
79. (a) Sliced (b) Cured (c) Better (d) Killed (e) Slept
80. (a) Dared (b) Worried (c) Feared (d) Crossed (e) Decided

Part –III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 81-95): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
81. 630 ÷ 18 ÷ 5 =?
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 175 (e) None of these
82. 12 + 4 × 3 =?
(a) 28 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 26 (e) None of these
83. v (5378) × v (3360) ÷ v (360) =?
(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 225 (e) None of these
84. 8934 – 3257 + 481 = ? + 2578
(a) 6158 (b) 3580 (c) 3040 (d) 3400 (e) None of these
85. 8424 ÷ 135 × 6 = ?
(a) 124.8 (b) 249.6 (c) 374.4 (d) 274.4 (e) None of these
86. 12 × 3.5 – 8.5 × 3.2 = ?
(a) 14.8 (b) 18.4 (c) 69.2 (d) 16.8 (e) None of these
87. 23.56 + 134.44 + 4142.25 = ?
(a) 4302.25 (b) 4300.75 (c) 4301.25 (d) 4300.25 (e) None of these
88. 35% of 430 + ?% of 360 = 276.5
(a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 45 (d) 15 (e) None of these
89. v (675.001) + (4.005)³ = ?
(a) 84 (b) 86 (c) 90 (d) 94 (e) 87
90. 140% of 450 + 24% of 650 = ?
(a) 786 (b) 474 (c) 800 (d) 488 (e) None of these
91. The value of (.625 × .0729 x 28.9) / (.0017 x .025 x 8.1) is :
(a) 3825 (b) 3.825 (c) 38.25 (d) 3825 (e) None of these
92. (1/3) of (256/7) of (21/16) of (1/2) of ? = 3648
(a) 456 (b) 654 (c) 765 (d) 876 (e) None of these
93. [v(121×49) ]÷3.5 ×78 = ?2 + 35
(a) 39 (b) 49 (c) 51 (d) 41 (e) None of these
94. 2.03% of 1400 + 4.2% of 450 = ?
(a) 18.09 (b) 10.33 (c) 24.42 (d) 46.51 (e) None of these
95. 3960 ÷ 24 × 392 ÷ 14 = ?
(a) 4305 (b) 193 (c) 4620 (d) 2310 (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 96-100): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
96. 8, 39, 155, 464, ?
(a) 231 (b) 463 (c) 1391 (d) 927 (e) None of these
97. 4, 5, 14, 51, ?
(a) 158 (b) 156 (c) 260 (d) 208 (e) None of these
98. 7, 8, 17, 42, ?
(a) 67 (b) 78 (c) 91 (d) 106 (e) None of these
99. 5, 6, 15, 50, ?
(a) 207 (b) 157 (c) 155 (d) 205 (e) None of these
100. 729, 243, 81, 27, ?
(a) 18 (b) 9 (c) 3 (d) 15 (e) None of these
101. The ratio between the boys and girls in a class is 6:5 respectively. If 8 more boys join the class and two girls leave the class then the respective ratio becomes 11:7. What is the number of boys in the class now?
(a) 28 (b) 38 (c) 44 (d) 36 (e) None of these
102. Mohan purchased an article and sold it for Rs. 2817.50 and earned 15 percent profit on the cost price. What was the cost price of the article?
(a) Rs.2500 (b) Rs.2450 (c) Rs.2550 (d) Rs. 3315 (e) None of these
103. The difference between the average of three consecutive even numbers is 5. What is first even number?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d)Can’t be determined (e) None of these
104. Cost of 24 bats and 32 sticks is Rs. 5600. What is the price of 3 bats and 4 sticks?
(a) Rs.1400 (b) Rs.2800 (c) Rs. 700 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
105. A team of 8 persons joins in a shooting competition. The best marksman scored 85 points. If he had scored 92 points, the average score of team would have been 84.The number of points the team scored is:
(a) 645 (b) 665 (c) 588 (d) 672 (e) 652
106. A 160 metre long train running at a speed of 90 kmph crosses a platform in 18 seconds. What is the length of the platform in metres?
(a) 210 (b) 240 (c) 290 (d) 310 (e) None of these
107. 75% of a number is equal to four-fifth of another number. What is the ratio between the first number and the second number respectively?
(a) 16:15 (b) 15:14 (c) 5:6 (d) 15:16 (e) None of these
108. What will be the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs. 4000 at the end of two years?
(a) Rs. 10 (b) Rs. 20 (c) Rs. 25 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
109. The difference between the digits of a two digit number is 4 and the digit in the unit’s place is one-third of the digit in the tenth’s place. What is the two-digit number?
(a) 26 (b) 31 (c) 93 (d) 62 (e) Can’t be determined
110. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. What is the highest number?
(a) 32 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 34 (e) None of these
111. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3:4 respectively. Four years hence Q will be five years older than P. What is P’s present age?
(a) 15 years (b) 20 years (c) 25 years (d) Can’t be determined (e) None of these
112. Gaurav spends 40% of the amount he received from his father on hostel expenses, 20% on books and stationary and 50% of the remaining on transport. He saves Rs. 450 which is half the remaining amount after spending on hostel expenses, books et. And transport. How much money did he get from hs father?
(a) Rs.3000 (b) Rs.6000 (c) Rs.4500 (d) Can’t determined (e) None of these
113. 45% of a number is less than its 64% by 38. What is 20% of that number?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 10 (d) 60 (e) None of these
114. 12 Men can complete one-third of the work in 8 days. In how many days can 16 men complete that work?
(a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d)Can’t be determined (e) None of these
115. What is the average of the following set of numbers? 38, 92, 45, 25, 60
(a) 48 (b) 54 (c) 56 (d) 50 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of students in Five Disciplines of a college over the years

Discipline ?Year ? Arts Science Commerce Management  Agriculture
2001 240 358 275 215 314
2002 260 390 286 234 365
2003 275 374 265 269 336
2004 284 368 290 255 348
2005 296 415 272 284 326
2006 312 432 364 276 383
116. In which year the percentage change in the case of Agriculture discipline was highest from the previous year?
(a) 2002 (b) 2003 (c) 2004 (d) 2005 (e) 2006
117. What was approximate percentage increase in the number of students in Commerce discipline from 32003 to 2004?
(a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 9 (e) 22
118. In which year was the difference in number of students in Arts and Science exactly 130?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2004 (d) 2006 (e) None of these
119. The total number of students in Agriculture in 2001 and 2005 together was approximately what percent of number of students from the same discipline in 2002?
(a) 75 (b) 165 (c) 65 (d) 175 (e) 190
120. In which discipline was there a continuous increase in number of students over the given years?
(a) Science (b) Agriculture (c) Arts (d) Commerce (e) Management

Part- IV: Reasoning Ability

121. Q walked 20 meters towards West, took a left turn and walked West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres and again took a right turn and walked 20 meters. How far is Q now from the starting point?
(b) 40 metres (b) 50 meters (c) 80 meters (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
122. In a column of thirty boys, M is eight from the end and J is twelth from the front. If there are six boys between J and Q. How many boys are there between M and Q?
(b) 10 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
123. In a certain code, ‘3 4 5’ means ‘come and go’ and ‘5 9 7’ means ‘go back now’, what does’ mean in that code?
(b) back (b) now (c) back or now (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
124. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(b) 115 (b) 161 (c) 253 (d) 391 (e) 345
125. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters EVRA using each letter only one once in each word?
(b) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)More than three
126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(b) OMQ (b) HFJ (c) TPR (d) TRV (e) VTX
127. In a certain code GATHERS is written as NUHGRQD. How is SEALING written in that code?
(b)BFTKHMF (b)BFTKHMH (c) BFTMHFM (d) TFBKHMF (e) None of these
128. ‘SIDE’ is written as ‘DSIE’ and ‘ROAM’ is written as ‘AROM’ in the same way as ‘DUCK’ is written as ___?
(b) KDCU (b) KCUD (c) CDKU (d) CDUK (e) None of these
129. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 59126874 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order among them within the number?
(b) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)More than three
130. Each consonant in the word EXACTION is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the new letters are arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the rearrangement?
(b) N (b) F (c) J (d) S (e) None of these
131. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SERVITUDE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the word as in the English alphabet?
(b) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)More than three

Directions (Q. 132-137): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which statements disregarding commonly known facts.

132. Statements:
Some nails are plates.
Some plates are disks.
All disks are mirrors.
All mirrors are tyres.
Conclusions:
I. Some tyres are plates.
II. Some tyres are nails.
III. Some mirrors are plates.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) All I, II and III follow
(e) None of these

133. Statements:
Some windows are lakes.
Some lakes are forests.
Some forests are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some hills are windows.
II. Some curtains are lakes.
III. Some forests are windows.
(a) None follows
(b) Only follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only III follows
(e) Only I and III follow

134. Statements:
All tapes are branches.
Some branches are roads.
Some fruits are trees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are tapes.
II. Some fruits are tapes.
III. Some fruits are branches.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only III follows
(e) Only II and III follows

135. Statements:
Some beads are chairs.
All chairs are trucks.
Some trucks are bricks.
All bricks are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are chairs.
II. Some cars are trucks.
III. Some trucks are beads.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) All I, II and III follow
(e) None of these

136. Statements:
All flowers are houses.
All houses are tigers.
All tigers are goats.
Some goats are bullocks.
Conclusions:
I. Some goats are flowers.
II. Some tigers are flowers.
III. Some bullocks are tigers.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All I, II and III follow
(e) None of these

137. Statements:
All shirts are suits.
No hat is suit.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions:
I. Some rings are hats.
II. Some bangles are suits.
III. No ring is hat.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only either I or III follows
(e) Only either I or III and II follow

Directions (Q. 138- 141): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
R 3 A M % D 1 B U J 2 @ © F I K E d W P 4 8 V Q 9 6 Y * 5

138. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the thirteenth from the left end?
(a) K (b) E (c) I (d) F (e) None of these
139. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) MDA (b) 6*9 (c) 4VP (d) FK@ (e) None of these
140. Which of the following is the twelfth to the right of the sixth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(a) E (b) 5 (c) @ (d) 2 (e) Non of these
141. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a constant and immediately followed by a symbol?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

Directions (Q. 142-145): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.

Letter: A R P M D E K Q Z F H K U W J
Digit/Symbol Code: © 7 8 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @ 6 d
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as ‘*’

142. IDUPRJ
(a)  19@87d (b) d9@87d (c) 19@871 (d)d9@871 (e) None of these
143. UKWJMA
(a) ©%6d3@ (b) @%682@ (c) @%6d©3 (d)@%6d3© (e) None of these
144. RIQHFP
(a) 8145$8 (b) 7145$8 (c) *145$* (d)8145$7 (e) None of these
145. MDAPQE
(a) 29©842 (b) 39©842 (c)39©843 (d)29©843 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 146-150): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, *, $ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true? Give answer
(a) if only Conclusion I is true. (b) if only Conclusion II is true.
(c) if either Conclusion I or II is true. (d) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) if both Conclusion I and II is true.

146. Statements:

H @ K, K % D, D $ B

Conclusions:

I. H @ B       II. B @ K

147. Statements:

M % F, F © R, R * K

Conclusions:

I. K © F        II. M * R

148. Statements:

A * F, H @ F, M © H

Conclusions:

I. M © F         II. A * H

149. Statements:

R © M, M * W, T @ W

Conclusions:

I. T © M         II. T © R

150. Statements:

J © K, K @ D, D $ F

Conclusions:

I. F * K            II. F $ K

Directions (Q. 151-155): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, M, P, J, H, D and K are seven students of a school. They study in Std. III, IV and V with atleast two in any one standard. Each of them has different choice of colour from blue, red, green, yellow, black, white and brown, not necessarily in the same order. M students in Std. IV with only D who likes red colour. A studies in Std. V and does not like either blue or green. H does not study in Std. C and likes yellow colour. P and J study in the same std. but not with A. None of those who study in Std. III likes white. The one who likes black studies in Std. IV. J likes brown colour. P does not like colour.

151. Which colour does P like?
(a) Green (b) Blue (c) Blue or Green (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
152. Which of the following combination is definitely correct?
(a) III-H-Black (b) IV-K-Blue (c) V-A-Blue (d) IV-D-Green (e) All are incorrect
153. Which colour does A like?
(a) Brown (b) Red (c) White (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
154. Which colour does K like?
(a) Green (b) Blue (c) Blue or Green (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
155. In which std. do three of then study?
(a) III only (b) V only (c) III or V only (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these

Directions (156-160) : Study the following instructions carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

In making decision about important questions, it is desirable that a candidate is able to distinguish between strong and weak arguments so far as they related to the questions weak arguments may not be directly related to the trivial aspect of the question. Each questions below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak

(a) If only Argument I is strong

(b) If only Arguments II is strong

(c) If either I or II is strong

(d) If neither I nor II is strong

(e) If both I and II are strong

156. Statements:

Should the vehicles older than 15 yr be barred in metros in India?

Arguments

I. Yes, this is a significant step to lower the pollution level in metros.

II. No, It will be very difficult for vehicle owners to shift to other parts of the country.

157. statement

Should persons convicted of criminal offences in the past be allowed to contest elections in India?

Arguments:

I. No, such persons cannot serve the cause of the people and country.

II. Yes, it is democracy – Let people decide whom to vote.

158. Statements:

Should government close down loss- making public sector enterprises?

Arguments

I. No, all employees will lose their jobs, security and earning, what would they do?

II. Yes, in a competitive words, the rules is survival of the fifths.

159. Statements

Should the prestigious people who has committed crime, unmovinglly be met with special treatment?

Arguments:

I. Yes, the prestigious people don’t commit crime intentionally.

II. No, it is our policy that everybody is equal before the law.

160. Statements:

Should India have no military force at all ?

Arguments:

I. No, Other countries in the words do not believe in non-violence.

II. Yes, many Indians believe in non-violence.

Part – V: Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge

161. The taskbar is located ___
(a) on the Start menu (b) at the bottom of the screen (c) on the Quick Launch toolbar (d) at the top of the screen (e) None of these
162. Another word for software is ___
(a) input (b) output (c) program (d) system (e) None of these
163. Generally, you access the Recycle Bin through as icon located ___
(a) on the desktop (b) on the hard drive (c) on the shortcut menu (d) in the Properties dialog box (e) None of these
164. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s ___
(a) features (b) format (c) pagination (d) grid (e) None of these
165. Where is data saved permanently?
(a) Memory (b) Storage (c) CPU (d) Printer (e) None of these
166. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
(a) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium (b) Every file has a filename (c) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the file’s contents (d) Files usually contain data (e) None of these
167. What type of computer could be found in a digital watch?
(a) Mainframe computer (b)Supercomputer (c) Embedded computer (d) Notebook computer (e) None of these
168. Which is not a basic function of a computer?
(a) Copy text (b) Accept input (c) Process data (d) Store data (e) None of these
169. The ___ is the box that houses the most important parts of a computer system.
(a) software (b) hardware (c) data (d)information (e) None of these
170. A ___ is a collection of information saved as a unit.
(a) folder (b) file (c) path (d) file extension (e) None of these
171. Peripheral devices such as printers and monitors are considered to be ___
(a) hardware (b) software (c) data (d)information (e) None of these
172. Input, output , and processing devices grouped together represent a(n) ___
(a) mobile device (b) information processing cycle (c) circuit board (d) computer system (e) None of these
173. Most Web sites have a main page, the ___, which acts as a doorway to the rest of the Web site pages.
(a) search engine (b) homepage (c) browser (d) URL (e) None of these
174. Which of the following system components is the brain of the computer?
(a) Circuit board (b) CPU (c) Memory (d) Network card (e) None of these
175. A ___ shares hardware, software, and date among authorized users.
(a) network (b) protocol (c) hyperlink (d) transmitter (e) None of these
176. Good marketing requires one of the following ____
(a) proper planning (b) good team work (c) good communication skills (d) knowledge of products (e) All of these
177. The main directory of a disk is called the ___ directory.
(a) root (b) sub (c) folder (d) network (e) None of these
178. Marketing is a ___
(a) one day effort (b) team effort (c) one man effort (d) All of these (e) None of these
179. Service Marketing is the same as ___
(a) Transaction Marketing (b) Relationship Marketing (c) Internal Marketing (d) Outdoor Marketing (e) All of these
180. Marketing is influenced by ___
(a) product demand (b) public taste (c) buyer behavior (d) brand image (e) All of these
181. Antivirus software is an example of ___
(a) business software (b) an operating system (c) a security utility (d) an office suite (e) None of these
182. Marketing is banks is a necessary today, due to ___
(a)Liberalisation (b)Nationalisation (c) Fashion (d)Urbanisation (e) Marketing in banks is not necessary, as banking in India is more than 200 years old
183. The main sytem board of a computer is called the ___
(a) integrated circuit (b) motherboard (c) processor (d) microship (e) None of these
184. A(n) __ backup contains a copy of every program, data, and system file of a computer.
(a) restoration (b) bootstrap (c) differential (d) full (e) None of these
185. Marketing helps in ___
(a) booting production (b) getting new clients (c) interacting with strangers (d) All of these (e) None of these
186. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called ___
(a) cache (b) instruction (c) source code (d) word size (e) None of these
187. Marketing of services is resorted in ___
(a)manufacturing concerns (b) Insurance business (c) hotels (d)Only(a)and(b) (e) Only (b) and (c)
188. Marketing is the art of ___
(a) buying more (b) paying more (c) selling more (d) talking more (e) Only (a) and (b)
189. Market Share means ___
(a) Share market (b) Share prices (c) IPOs (d) Scope for marketing (e) Share of business among peers
190. A DSA (Direct Selling agent) is one ___
(a) who sells through the Internet (b) who sells direct to the client (c) who works on the bank counter (d) who works in back office set up (e) None of these
191. Internal marketing means ___
(a) Marketing to self (b) Marketing to family members (c) Marketing to the staff members (d) Marketing inside India (e) Marketing outside India
192. A good and effective DSA should ___
(a) Copy the competitor company (b) Criticize the competitor company (c) Join the competitor company (d) Be passive (e) Be more effective than the competitor company
193. A DSA helps in ___
(a) Boosting direct sales (b) Boosting sales through the net (c)Strengthening Indirect Marketing (d)Strengthening Telemarketing (e) All of these
194. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Marketing is not required due to globalization (b) Marketing causes higher expenses and losses (c) Marketing is not required in profit-making companies (d) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees (e)Marketing is a waste of time in established companies
195. A true marketing mindset requires ___
(a) Control mindset (b) Command mindset (c) Passive mindset (d) Active mindset (e) Inert mindset
196. Modern styles of marketing are ___
(a) telemarketing (b) web marketing (c)advertisements on the net (d) e-mails (e) All of these
197. Selling is ___
(a) Different from Marketing (b) A sub-function of Marketing (c) Same as Marketing (d) More than Marketing (e) None of these
198. Good selling skills involve ___
(a) Patience (b) Perseverance (c) Empathy (d) Knowledge (e) All of these
199. A ‘Lead in marketing jargon, means ___
(a) a metal (b) a leash (c) a likely consumer (d) a team leader (e) None of these
200. Innovation means ___
(a) Inspiration (b) Enthusiam (c) Compensation (d) Creativity (e) All of these

Answer key:

1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(a)
9.(e) 10.(a) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(e) 15.(e) 16.(a)
17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(e) 20.(a) 21.(c) 22.(a) 23.(a) 24.(d)
25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(d) 28.(a) 29.(c) 30.(d) 31.(d) 32.(c)
33.(b) 34.(e) 35.(b) 36.(b) 37.(c) 38.(c) 39.(e) 40.(e)
41.(d) 42.(e) 43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(c) 46.(b) 47.(c) 48.(e)
49.(d) 50.(a) 51.(e) 52.(b) 53.(a) 54.(c) 55.(d) 56.(c)
57.(e) 58.(d) 59.(a) 60.(b) 61.(a) 62.(c) 63.(e) 64.(d)
65.(b) 66.(d) 67.(a) 68.(b) 69.(d) 70.(e) 71.(b) 72.(e)
73.(d) 74.(d) 75.(c) 76.(e) 77.(c) 78.(a) 79.(b) 80.(a)
81.(a) 82.(c) 83.(d) 84.(b) 85.(c) 86.(a) 87.(d) 88.(e)
89.(c) 90.(a) 91.(d) 92.(a) 93.(d) 94.(e) 95.(c) 96.(d)
97.(e) 98.(b) 99.(a) 100.(b) 101.(c) 102.(b) 103.(d) 104.(c)
105.(b) 106.(c) 107.(a) 108.(a) 109.(d) 110.(c) 111.(a) 112.(c)
113.(b) 114.(a) 115.(e) 116.(e) 117.(d) 118.(b) 119.(d) 120.(c)
121.(a) 122.(d) 123.(c) 124.(e) 125.(b) 126.(c) 127.(b) 128.(d)
129.(d) 130.(e) 131.(e) 132.(b) 133.(a) 134.(d) 135.(c) 136.(a)
137.(e) 138.(a) 139.(d) 140.(b) 141.(b) 142.(c) 143.(d) 144.(a)
145.(e) 146.(b) 147.(d) 148.(e) 149.(a) 150.(c) 151.(a) 152.(e)
153.(c) 154.(b) 155.(a) 156.(a) 157.(a) 158.(a) 159.(b) 160.(a)
161.(b) 162.(c) 163.(a) 164.(c) 165.(b) 166.(c) 167.(d) 168.(a)
169.(d) 170.(b) 171.(a) 172.(d) 173.(b) 174.(b) 175.(a) 176.(e)
177.(a) 178.(b) 179.(e) 180.(e) 181.(c) 182.(a) 183.(b) 184.(d)
185.(d) 186.(c) 187.(e) 188.(c) 189.(e) 190.(d) 191.(d) 192.(d)
193.(e) 194.(d) 195.(d) 196.(e) 197.(b) 198.(e) 199.(c) 200.(d)

IBPS Clerk Mains : Model Paper

Q.1) In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’. Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language?
a) si b) pa c) ti d) ke e) None of these
Q.2) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below? C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A AB ?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
Q.3) How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letters only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three
Q.4) The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternatives shall replace the questions mark? AD, FC, HK, MJ ?
a) NQ b) OQ c) OR d) MP e) None of these
Q.5) If the letters in the word ‘DOLPHIN’ are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?
a) O b) D c) I d) L e) None of these
Q.6) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) horses b) Dog c) Camel d) Cow e) Fox
Q.7) In a certain code ‘RUST’ is written as ‘QVRU’. How is ‘LINE’ written as that code?
a) KJMF b) KJLI c) KMJF d) KJME e) None of these
Q.8) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘WONDERS’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters are between them in the English alphabet?
a) One b) Two c) three d) Four e) More than three
D.9-10) Study the following information and answer the question given below it. A, B, C, and D live on floors 3 to 6 of the same six storied building.A lives on fourth floors. Only one person live on the floors between A and B. C does not live on a floor above A’s floor.Q.9) Who lives on a floor immediately above B’s floor?
a) A b) C c) D d) A and C e) B lives on top floor
Q.10) Who lives on the fifth floor?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these
D.11-13) Study the arrangement of letters and digits given below and answer the question follows.Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P

Q.11) If each of the consonants in the above arrangement is replaced by the letters preceding it in the alphabetic series how many vowels will be obtained?

a) Nil b) One c) Two d) Three e) Four
Q.12) If first all the digits are arranged in descending order and then the letters are arranged in alphabetic order, the position of how many digits and alphabets will remain unchanged?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these
Q.13) If one is subtracted from each of the members, which of the following will be the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 2 d) 1 e) None of these
Q.14) In a certain code ‘EXPERT’ is written as ‘$Z%$Q5’ and ‘PETROL’ is written as ‘%$5Q#9’. How will ‘EXPLORE’ be written in that code?
a) $Z%9Q#$ b) $Z%9#Q$ c) $Z%9#$Q d) $Z%9$#Q e) None of these
Q.15) Sunil walks towards the east from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the east. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?
a) Cannot be determined b) Two c) Three d) Four e) None of these
D.16-20) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II give n below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers as
a) If the data in statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in statements I alone or in Statements II alone are sufficient to answer the questions
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary the question
Q.16) Who among M, N, P and R is facing North?I. Only one among the four faces North

II. M and N face West while P is facing South

Q.17) Is it afternoon in Delhi?I. The weather is bright, humid and hot in Delhi

II. Thirteen hours ago it was midnight in Delhi

Q.18) How is D related to B?I. D is the sister of B’s only sister’s son

II. D is sister of Q, whose mother has only two siblings-a brother A and a sister B.

Q.19) Is the child holding a yellow coloured flower?I. When the thorn of the flower pricked his finger, the colours of the flood matched that of the flower

II. The child is carrying a rose in his hand

Q.20) Who among P, Q, R, S and T, each having different height, is the tallest? I. T is shorter only than R and SII. Q is not as tall as P and is shorter than R and S
D.21-25) Study the following information and answer the question which follow? (i) K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting along a circular table facing the centre(ii) L is sits between N and O

(iii) K is third to the left of O

(iv) Q is second to the left of M, who is to the immediate left of P

Q.21)  Which is correct position of L with respect to Q?

a) Second to the right b) First to the left c) First to the right d) Third to the right e) None of these
Q.22) Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
a) LO b) MK c) QN d) LN e) None of these
Q.23) Who sits second to the left of L?
a) P b) M c) K d) Q e) None of these
Q.24) Who sits between M and Q?
a) O b) N c) K d) L e) None of these
Q.25) Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the other two?
a) NQL b) PMK c) POK d) MOP e) None of these
D.26-30) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding common known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answers as
a) If only conclusion I is true
b) If only conclusion II is true
c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
e) If both conclusions I and II are true
Q.26) StatementsAll erasers are pencils. Some pencils are pen No pen is a paper.

Conclusions I. Some erasers are papers. II. No paper is an eraser.

Q.27) Statements All boxes are tables. All windows are table All tables are fans Conclusions I. All windows are fans II. Some tables are boxes.
Q.28) Statements Some poles are lights. All lights are bulbsSome bulbs are wires.Conclusions I. Some poles are bulbs. II. Some lights are wires.
Q.29) Statements All buildings are roads. All roads are trucks All trucks are mountains.Conclusions I. Some buildings are mountains. II. Some mountains are roads.
Q.30) Statements Some spoons are bowls. Some pans are both spoons and bowls. Some forks are bowls.ConclusionsI. Some forks are spoons. II. Some pans are forks.
D.31-33) In these questions symbols $, #, % are used for different meanings as follows. $ means ‘Neither greater nor equal to’# means ‘Neither greater nor smaller than’% means ‘Neither smaller nor equal to’In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusion I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers as
a) If only conclusion I is true
b) If only conclusion II is true
c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
e) If both conclusion I and II are true
Q.31) Statements S $ P, P % Q, Q # R
Conclusions I. R $ S             II. R % S
Q.32) Statements A $ B, B # D, D % C
Conclusions I. D $ A           II. B % C
Q.33) Statements M # K, K % P, P $ R
Conclusions     I. R $ M       II. P % M
D.34- 35) Read the following  information carefully and answer the question followIf ‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’

If ‘A+B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’If ‘A÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’

If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

Q.34) In the expression ‘P+Q×R’ how is R related to P

a) Daughter b) Brother c) Father d) Sister e) None of these
Q.35) In the expression ‘P÷Q-T’ how is T related to P?
a) Mother b) Sister c) Brother d) Either brother or sister e) None of these
D.36-40) Read the following information and choose the right alternate for the questions give, afterwards.The sports week of an institute was organized from 19th to 26th of a month, 19th being a Wednesday. During that period six-games-Cricket c) , Badminton b) , Table Tennis (T) Kho-Kho (K) , Hockey (H) and Football (F) were played, one game on each day. Further information is

(i) Hockey was not played on the closing day, i.e., on 26th.

(ii) Table Tennis was played on the previous day of Cricket.

(iii) Football was not played either on Wednesday or Saturday.

(iv) No game was played on Thursday and Sunday.

(v) Kho-Kho was played on Monday.

(vi) There was a gap of two days between Cricket and Football.

Q.36) The sports week started with which game?

a) Table Tennis b) Cricket c) Kho-Kho d) Hockey e) None of these
Q.37) How many days gap is there between Hockey and Football?
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Two e) None of these
Q.38) Which pair of games was played on Wednesday?
a) Hockey and Badminton b) Hockey and Cricket c) Cricket and Table Tennis d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
Q.39) Which game exactly precedes Kho-Kho?
a) Hockey b) Football c) Cricket d) Table Tennis e) No game precedes
Q.40) Table Tennis follows which game?
a) Hockey b) Cricket c) Table Tennis d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
D.41-50) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?Q.41) 3.8×5.6×11.5-31.653=?
a) 234.880 b) 265.404 c) 213.067 d) 256.072 e) None of these
Q.42)image001
a) 415 b) 384 c) 492 d) 346 e) None of these
Q.43) 93% of 456=?
a) 435.06 b) 419.02 c) 443.04 d) 424.08 e) None of these
Q.44) 8.2×?=465.76
a) 56.8 b) 48.6 c) 62.4 e) 74.2 e) None of these
Q.45) 1485÷(44×0.75)=?
a) 33 b) 56 c) 45 e) 67 e) None of these
Q.46) 126÷8÷0.4=?
a) 36 b) 42 c) 48 d) 54 e) None of these
Q.47) 9358-5086-2384=?
a) 1788 b) 1988 c) 2188 d) 2388 e) None of these
Q.48)image003
a)    image005 b)    image007 c)            image009 d)            image011 e) None of these
Q.49)image013
a) 360000 b) 60000 c) 3600 d) 6000 e) None of these
Q.50) 23.35+ 33.25 + 325.52=?
a) 382.12 b) 387.14 c) 391.92 d) 404.86 e) None of these
D.51-55) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note you are not expected to calculate the expect value)Q.51) 11.5% of 666 ×18.3%of 888=?
a) 18338 b) 12446 c) 10520 d) 11542 e) 15608
Q.52) 2898÷ 22÷2 =?
a) 43 b) 52 c) 278 d) 165 e) 66
Q.53) 18.999×12.005×25.998=?
a) 5930 b) 4860 c) 4590 d) 3320 e) 6470
Q.54) image015?
a) 29 b) 9 c) 25 d) 17 e) 13
Q.55)image017
a) 19 b) 4 c) 11 d) 15 e) 6
D.56-60) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?Q.56) 27, 23, 21, 17, 15, ?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11 e) None of these
Q.57) 5, 11, 24, 51, ?, 217, 440
a) 105 b) 106 c) 107 d) 108 e) None of these
Q.58) 11, 13, 17, 19, ?, 29, 31
a) 25 b) 26 c) 27 d) 23 e) None of these
Q.59) 2, 5, 3, 8, 5, 11, 6, ? 9
a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15 e) None of these
Q.60) 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, ?, 128
a) 68 b) 65 c) 66 d) 67 e) None of these
Q.61) The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number?
a) 83 b) 79 c) 81 d) 77 e) None of these
Q.62) The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D?
a) 11440 b) 11024 c) 10608 d) 11232 e) None of these
Q.63) The owner of a cell phone shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone?
a) Rs.5845 b) Rs.6750 c) Rs.5900 d) Rs.6925 e) None of these
Q.64) If  image019is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number?
a) 69 b) 59 c) 89 d) 79 e) None of these
Q.65) If an amount of Rs.85602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each persons get?
a) Rs.2594 b) Rs.2954 c) Rs.2549 d) Rs.2495 e) None of these
Q.66) 43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number?
a) 416 b) 429 c) 403 d) 384 e) None of these
Q.67) If the fractions image021 and image023 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth?
a)image023 b)image025 c)image027 d)image029 e) None of these
Q.68) If image031 is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 10768. What is the number?
a) 46 b) 2304 c) 48 d) 2116 e) None of these
Q.69) The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, Then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school?
a) 49: 52 b) 51:50 c) 50: 51 d) 52: 49 e) None of these
Q.70) Sumit invests Rs.4762, which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is the monthly income?
a) Rs. 28572 b) Rs. 23810 c) Rs.19048 d) Rs.14285 e) None of these
Q.71) Ms.Vishakha deposits an amount of Rs.35800 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 15% per annum for 4 yr. What total amount will Ms.Vishakha get at the end of 4 yr
a) Rs. 45680 b) Rs.39880 c) Rs.21480 d) Rs.57280 e) None of these
Q.72) There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred?
a) 603 b) 402 c) 804 d) 703 e) None of these
Q.73) In an examination Shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination?
a) 83 b) 65 c) 82 d) 78 e) 70
Q.74) What should be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs.8930 at the rate of 8% per annum after 5 yr?
a) Rs. 5413 b) Rs.2678 c) Rs. 3572 d) Rs.4752 e) None of these
Q.75) The cost of 12 chairs and 15 tables is Rs. 58968. What is the cost of 4 chairs and 5 tables?
a) Rs. 19656 b) Rs. 29484 c) Rs.39312 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
Directions (76-80): Study the following graph carefully and answer thequestions that follow:

The graph given below represents the number of users of two broadband services

A and B across 5 cities P, Q, R, S and T.

image034

Q.76) What is the total number of users of brand B across all give cities together?
a) 2700 b) 3000 c) 3100 d) 2900 e) 3200
Q.77) The number of users of brand A in city T is what percent of the number of users of brand B in city Q?
a) 150 b) 110 c) 140 d) 160 e) 120
Q.78) What is the average number of users of brand A across all five cities together?
a) 560 b) 570 c) 580 d) 590 e) 550
Q.79) What is the difference between the total number of users of brand A and B together in city R and the ottal number of users of brand A and B together in city P?
a) 170 b) 140 c) 130 d) 150 e) 160
Q.80) What is the respective ratio of the number users of brand A in city P to the number of users of brand B in city S?
a) 5 : 7 b) 4 : 7 c) 2 : 5 d) 3 : 4 e) 5 : 6
D.81-95) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
          “Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, “You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it?”
          “Because” Sean replied, “I have a good feed every night at the emperor’s orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to last a fortnight”.
“Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke’s habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
          At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits was excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor’s men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook him as the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilesslybefore ting him free.
Q.81) How did old Sean manage to meet his food requirements?
a) By buying food from the market b) His nephew Luke took care of his requirements c) Luke brought fruits from the emperor’s orchard for Sean d) He picked up fruits from the emperor’s orchard e) The emperor provided him with ample supply of fruits
Q.82) Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
a) Sean was a poor and suffering man b) Luke came to know about the orchard from his uncle c) Sean initially hesitated to take his nephew along d) Luke was finally- set free e) Both Sean and Luke collected fruits from Emperor’s orchard
Q.83) Why was Sean reluctant to take Luke along?
a) Because he was a selfish man b) He feared that Luke’s reaction may alert the Emperor’s men c) Because Luke could harm him d) He wanted to bring fruits for Luke himself e) He knew Luke was a greedy person
Q.84) How often did Sean visit the emperor’s orchard?
a) Daily b) Once a month c) In a period of two weeks d) Never, his nephew Luke brought fruits for him e) Everyday during midnight
Q.85) Luke remained behind at the orchard because he
a) was greedy and wanted to collect more fruits b) waited for the Emperor’s men to arrest him c) lost his composure and started expressing his feelings loudly d) had waited for his uncle to return e) could not move in the dark
Q.86) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Luke did not take good care of his Uncle b) The Emperor was a wicked man c) Lack of self-control had put Luke into trouble d) Orchards are highly guarded areas and not meant for the public e) Luke had a habit of speaking loudly
Q.87) What does “bird of passage”; mean in the context of the given passage?
a) There was a bird in the orchard b) Bird’s song alerted Emperor’s men c) Other people also stole from orchards d) Emperor knew him personally e) He did not visit orchard regularly
Q.88) Why did Sean leave immediately after collecting the fruits?
a) He feared that the bird’s song would awaken the Emperor b) To avoid getting caught by the Emperor’s men c) He saw the Emperor’s men approaching d) He wanted to leave Luke alone e) He was afraid of the dark
Q.89) The Emperor’s men seized Luke immediately because he
a) was a potential threat to the kingdom b) did not take care of his uncle c) often lost self-control d) was suspected for damaging the Emperor’s orchard e) was a good friend of the Emperor
Q.90) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Reiterated
a) pleaded b) regurgitated c) protested d) repeated e) recapitulated
Q.91) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Extreme
a) end b) high c) severe d) serious e) moderate
Q.92) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Reluctant
a) disinclined b) opposed c) against d) resistant e) None of these
Q.93) Choose the word/ phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed inbold as used in the passage.Accompany
a) go with b) together c) synchronously d) along e) harmoniously
Q.94) Choose the word which s most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Pounded
a) weighed b) released c) paid d) attended e) caressed
Q.95) Choose the word which s most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Mercilessly
a) calmly b) compassionately c) mildly d) forgivably e) sympathetically
D.96-105) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which lifts the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
          An old couple was asking for water on the pavement outside an office. They (96) to be pitifully poor. When asked where they were (97) to, they told that they had come from a (98) village to get their cataract-afflicted eyes operated. But they were stranded. The stranger who had (99) them there with a promise of treatment was (100) . Humanely, few staff members of the office arranged for their(101) for a night and next day (102) to a reputed hospital, whose eye surgeon had helped (103) poor patients. He examined his new patients and got them admitted. The surgeon (104) picked beggars from the streets and operated them for free. The old couple stayed in the hospital for a week and came out with a new (105) .They were now happier and healthier.
Q.96) a) wanted b) apparently c) wished d) appeared e) liked
Q.97)           a) headed b) journey c) sitting d) footing e) tourist
Q.98) a) nearing b) residential c) close d) distantly e) nearby
Q.99) a) took b) asked c) bring d) brought e) walked
Q.100) a) forgotten b) untractable c) untraceable d) retraceable e) missed
Q.101) a) refuge b) asylum c) living d) livelihood e) shelter
Q.102) a) took b) transferred c) bought d) lead e) bring
Q.103) a) many b) greater c) quiet d) much e) lot
Q.104) a) timely b) repeatedly c) unwillingly d) constantly e) continuously
Q.105) a) happy b) insight c) site d) sense e) sight
D.106-110) Which of the phrases a) ,b) , c) and d) given below should replace the phrase given in boldin the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as answer.
Q.106) Balding is much more common in males than females.
a) at males than females b) in males then females c) at males then females d) in males against females e) No correction required
Q.107)Sun is the force before all natural phenomena.
a) behind all natural b) responsible all natural c) at all natural d) pushing all natural e) No correction required
Q.108) Many healthy people are been infected by the virus.
a) are having infected b) are being infected c) are in infection d) were bearing infected e) No correction required
Q.109) It is predicted that oil reserves will finished by 2034.
a) reserves are finished b) reserves would finish c) reserves have finish d) reserves should finish e) No correction required
Q.110) The standard of English in the schools are highly uneven
a) are being uneven b) are often uneven c) is highly uneven d) is high unevenly e) No correction required
D.111-115) Rearrange the following six sentencesa) ,b) , c) , d) , e) and f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer questions given below them.
A. Lack of infrastructural support has been one reason.
B. Therefore number of people willing to learn the art has dropped
C.Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art of Kerala.
D. There have been several factors responsible for it.
E. It is now considered a dying form of art.
F. Also, the government has not taken any initiative to preserve it.
Q.111) Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) F b) e c) d d) b e) a
Q.112) Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) a b) c c) d d) e) e) F
Q.113) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) a b) e c) c d) d e) e
Q.114) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) c b) a c) b d) e e) F
Q.115) Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) e b) F c) b d) d e) a
D.116-120) Read each sentence to find out whether these is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
Q.116) The principle that (A) / a pen is mightier (B) / then a sword (C) / was known to early Greeks. (D) / No error (E)
Q.117) Martha missed her slog (A) / who died of a (B) / skin infection at a (C) / very young age. (D) / No error (E)
Q.118) There was such (A) / a crowd that (B) / he would not (C) / find his brother.(D) / No error (E)
Q.119) Having managed de (A) / team of two (B) /years, he knew (C) / his players well (D) / No error (E)
Q.120) Because of heavy (A) / rains the trains (B) / are disable to (C) / run on time. (D) / No error (E)
Q.121) What is Web casting?
a) Casting a movie /TV star in a role on the ww b) Transmitting the Sec and audio on the Internet c) Playing of music on the Internet d) Searching on the Web e) None of the above
Q.122) The date command at the DOS prompt enables you to
a) view the date and time b) change the date c) change the date and time d) change the day only e) None of the above
Q.123) What are batch files in relation to computer?
a) They begin with the letter BAT b) They help you to keep files in batches c) They help you to keep directories in batches d) They help you to club a group of statements and run them one after together e) They help you to keep both directories and files in batches
Q.124) When you delete files in windows operating system they are
a) delete permanently b) put in recycle bin c) wiped thoroughly so that nobody is able to recover the file back d) delete permanently and also wiped dean e) The contents are garbled
Q.125) Format command
a) Formal the CPU b) Format floppy drives only c) Format should be left to the engineers to use d) Formats a disk to receive files e) Format the selected files
Q.126) The ability to read or write each piece of information in a storage device in approximately the same length of time regardless of its locations is
a) Random Access b) Raster scan c) Sequential Access d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.127) Which niche following device can store large amount of data?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) CD ROM d) Zip Desk e) DVD
Q.128) Which of the following is handy to carry yet can store large amounts of data?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) CD ROM d) Zip Desk e) DVD
Q.129) Data (Information) is stored in computers as
a) Directories b) Files c) Floppies d) Matter e) None of these
Q.130) Which storage device is mounted on ‘reels?
a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) Magnetic Tape d) CD ROM e) None of these
Q.131) What does ‘DOS’ sand for?
a) Disk Originating System b) Dynamic Operating System c) Disk Operating System d) Default Operating System e) None of the above
Q.132) Which of the following are the functions of DOS? I. Controlling the input and output operations. II. Controlling the interaction between the user and the computer. III. Controlling the process of storing and organizing different files.
a) Only I b) Both I and II c) Both II and Ill d) All I, II and III e) None of these
Q.133) What do you understand by the term DOS?
a) Downloading the System Program from the Internet
b) Downloading Operating System
c) The master control program of the computer which helps the computer to manage the files
d) The program which helps computer to check the various peripheral devices e) Both c and d
Q.134) What was the last version of MS-DOS that was released separately?
a) 6.22 b) 6.0 c) 6.11 d) 5.0 e) None of these
Q.135) One of the following statements is incorrect on MS-DOS.
a) MS-DOS is a command driven operating system b) MS-DOS is a Windows driven operating system c) MS-DOS exhibits a system prompt which is normally represented as C:\> d) MS-DOS is made up of external and internal commands e) None of the above
Q.136) What is MS Word?
a) A game b) An Operating System c) Word Processing Software d) Typing tutor software e) None of the above
Q.137) What tool works best for word processing?
a) IBM selectric b) Typewriter c) Computer d) Microsoft Word e) None of these
Q.138) Which of the following companies developed MS Office-2000?
a) Novell b) Corel c) Lotus d) Microsoft e) None of these
Q.139) MS-Word allows creation of ……… type of documents by default?
a) .DOC b) .WPF c) .TXT d) .DOT e) None of these
Q.140) Which of the following is the Word Processor in MS Office?
a) Word Pad b) Word c) Word Perfect d) Word Star e) None of these
Q.141) Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Headers are printed on the top of margins and footers are printed at the bottom of the margins.
b) Headers and footers normally carry information like page number, author name, dates, company names, etc.
c) No Headers and Footers are required in a single page document
d) Word will not allow to have Header and Footer in a single page document e) None of the above
Q.142) Word appears with a wavy red underline signifies
a) month spellings b) words from languages other than English c) word is unable to recognize those spellings d) Italics e) None of the above
Q.143) Table in Word is a grid of rows and columns, with each cell can have
a) text or graphics b) only text c) only graphics d) both e) None of these
Q.144) Borders are used where user wishes
a) to add emphasis to particular paragraph b) to show paragraph in a box c) to surround the paragraph with different styles boxes d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.145) Redo button is used to
a) reverse a redo action b) undo or redo an action depending on users choices c) reverse an undo action d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.146) Which command is used to copy the formula not the value from one data to another
a) Paste b) Paste special c) Ctrl + V d) Hyperlink e) None of these
Q.147) Which shortcut command is used to insert the current time?
a) Alt + T b) Alt + Shift +T c) Shift + T d) Ctrl  + : e) None of these
Q.148) Which shortcut command is used to insert the current date?
a) Alt + Shift + d b) Alt + d c) Ctrl + d d) Ctrl + ; e) None of these
Q.149) Which command is used to calculate the total characters in cell?
a) Len b) Length c) Mid d) Sid e) None of these
Q.150) Name the shortcut key to fill the value of just above cell
a) Ctrl  + D b) Ctrl + E c) Ctrl + T d) Ctrl + O e) None of these
Q.151) Which menu keeps the relationships command?
a) Tools b) Insert c) Format d) View e) None of these
Q.152) Where will we find the referential integrity command?
a) Tools b) View c) Format d) Table e) None of these
Q.153) In order to include picture data type must be
a) OLE b) Hyperlink c) Yes/No d) Picture e) None of these
Q.154) Which option will we use to give heading in the form?
a) Label b) Textbox c) Option Group d) Insert e) None of these
Q.155) By which command we can add records to a table from different tables?
a) Simple query wizard b) Cross tab wizard c) Find match query d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.156) Name an advanced language with which you can create new reports and screens?
a) VATL b) TDL c) DLR d) Any of these e) None of these
Q.157) Name the accounts related with intangible and invisible things which do not have a specified shape
a) Personal Accounts b) Nominal Accounts c) Real Accounts e) Any of these e) None of these
Q.158) Pressing the function keys one enter a payment voucher
a) F4 b) F2 c) F1 d) F5 e) None of these
Q.159) What is the debit account of receipt voucher
a) Ledger Account b) Expense Account c) Cash Account or any bank account d) Any of the above e) None of these
Q.160) Which voucher is used for entering the sale of fixed assets?
a) Sales Voucher b) Payment Voucher c) Receipt Voucher d) Purchase Voucher e) None of these
Q.161) Capital market is the market
a) where company float their shares and debentures b) where capital of various companies air bought and sold c) for long-term funds d) for short tern funds e) None of the above
Q.162) Capital market is divided into
a) long-term market and short-term market b) primary market and secondary market c) shares market and debentures market d) gilts market and bonds marker e) None of the above
Q.163) Primary market
a) is the new issues market where companies issue new securities to the investors b) is the place where only Primary Dealers may transact business c) signifies the market where only long-term bands are traded d) comprises of stock exchanges, banks and financial institutions dealing in primary securities e) None of the above
Q.164) Securities that have already been issued are traded in the
a) primary market b) secondary market c) tertiary market d) global market e) regional market
Q.165) Equity market
a) is the place where only gilt edged securities are traded b) covers both issue and trading of equity shares c) deals In the shares and debentures issued by only government companies d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.166) Debt market
a) covers issue as well as trading of debt instruments (e.g., bonds, debentures etc) b) is a place where only treasury bills art traded c) deals in only government debts d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.167) A company may raise funds from the primary marker by way of
a) public issue b) rights issue c) private placement d) All of these e) None of chess
Q.168) In public issue, companies raise funds by selling securities to
a) Existing shareholders only b) Flls Only c) PDs only d) general public e) None of the above
Q.169) In primary market, the players are
a) private sector companies b) central government and state governments. c) mutual funds d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.170) The primary purpose of capital market is
a) capital formation (i.e., directing savings to long-term investments) b) to raise capital for infrastructure projects c) to raise capital for capital intensive projects like dams power sector etc d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.171) Secondary market consists of
a) all the stock exchanges (including Over the Counter Exchange of India and National Stock Exchange) b) brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents c) Depositories/custodians, Depository Participant (Dps) , financiers and investors d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.172) Stock exchange is a place where
a) traders buy their stocks. b) stocks are exchanged by traders and businessmen through barter system c) securities are traded d) shares are traded c) None of the above
Q.173) Which of the following is the clearing house of Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) ?
a) The National Securities Clearing Corporation ltd. b) Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd. c) Reserve Bank of India d) State Bank of India e) None of the above
Q.174) In India, securitisation companies and reconstruction companies are regulated by the provisions of
a) the Banking Regulation Act. 1949
b) the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002
c) The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
d) The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 e) None of these
Q.175) The Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
a) is the premier export finance institution of the country, set up in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981
b) was launched by the Govt. of India with a mandate, not just to enhance exports from India, but to integrate the country’s foreign trade and investment with the overall economic growth
c) has been both a catalyst and a key player in the promotion of cross border trade and investment
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.176) The EXIM Bank offers
a) Rediscounting of export bills of commercial banks’ SME customers, with usance not exceeding 90 days
b) Refinance of Supplier’s Credit, enabling commercial banks to offer credit to Indian exporters of eligible goods, who in turn extend them credit over 180 days to importers overseas
c) finance for deemed exports to Indian companies
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.177) Which of the following activity is not undertaken by EXIM Bank?
a) Export Credit b) Film Finance c) Financing under PMEGP d) SME and Agriculture Finance e) None of the above
Q.178) EXIM Bank extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to………..to   enable buyers in those countries, to import goods an services from India on deferred credit terms.
a) overseas financial institutions b) regional development banks, c) sovereign governments and other entities overseas d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.179) Under Lines of Credit extended by EXIM Bank
a) Indian exporters can obtain payment of eligible value; from EXIM Bank, without recourse to them, against negotiation of shipping documents
b) a safe mode of non-recourse financing option available to Indian exporters
c) capital goods, plant and machinery, industrial manufactures, consumer durables etc are covered
d) All of the above e) None of the above
Q.180) Which of the following is the apex institution accredited with all matters concerning policy, planning and operation in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas?
a) CRAFICARD b) SIDBI c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) d) Regional Rural Banks e) None of the above
Q.181) Which university has been conferred with FICCI Education Awards 2015 under the category of “Excellence in Technology for Education Delivery” ?
a) Ashoka University b) IIT Gandhinagar c) Manipal University d) Nirma University e) None of these
Q.182) Girnar Software Pvt. Ltd has appointed which of the following as its chief financial officer (CFO) ?
a) Anurag Jain b) UmeshHora c) AnkitSoni d) ShaileshLakhani e) None of these
Q.183) 5th Heart of Asia conference with theme “Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process” hosted by which country ?
a) Israel b) Afganistan c) Turkey d) Pakistan e) None of these
Q.184) India has signed MoU with which of the following countries on cooperation in the energy sector ?
a) United Arab Emirates b) United Kingdom of Great Britain & Northern Ireland c) United Mexican States d) United States e) None of these
Q.185) London-based market research firm, Ipsos MORI, has conducted a survey “Index of Ignorance” ranked India at which place ?
a) 8th b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) None of these
Q.186) Which country has become the 10th country to ratify the Articles of Agreement (AoA) that will lay the legal framework for AIIB ?
a) Lithuania b) Liberia c) Luxembourg d) Lebanon e) None of these
Q.187) Which IT company has won 2015 Aegis Graham Bell Award for innovation in Internet of Things (IoT) ?
a) Infosys b) Wipro c) TCS d) Accenture e) None of these
Q.188) UNESCO Creative Cities Network has added which Indian city as its new member in Music category ?
a) Patiala b) Varanasi c) Lucknow d) Japiur e) None of these
Q.189) Which corporate company plans to invest in Silicon Valley fund to track innovative startups?
a) Infosys b) b) TCS c) Wipro d) HCl e) None of these
Q.190) ______’s PravinGordhan named as third finance minister.
a) South Africa b) Australia c) Russia d) Singapore e) None of these
Q.191) Which city has been recently added among India’s top five polluted cities?
a) Chennai b) Bangalore c) Ahmedabad d) Delhi e) None of these
Q.192) Which corporate company wins Graham Bell award for IoT solution?
a) Infosys b) HCL c) Wipro d) TCS e) None of these
Q.193) Who is the CEO of Amazon?
a) Sachin Bansal b) Vijay Shekhar Sharma c) KunalBahl d) Jeff Bezos e) None of these
Q.194) With which country, India has agreed to finalise a pact for enhanced intelligence-sharing and exchange of information of terror watch-list?
a) US b) UK c) UAE d) Bangladesh e) None of these
Q.195) No Indian found a place in the top-10 of batsmen’s rankings, even though Ashwin in _____ place and Jadeja in 8th place represented the country in the bowlers’ list.
a) 1st place b) 2nd place c) 3rd place d) 4th place e) None of these
Q.196) Merriam Webster declares ______ as word of the year for 2015.
a) ies b) ism c) es d) ces e) None of these
Q.197) Which Country picks new flag design to challenge current flag?
a) pakistan b) Zimbabwe c) Singapore d) New Zealand e) None of these
Q.198) India ranks ______ on Forbes’s best countries for business list out of 144 nations.
a) 96th b) 97th c) 98th d) 99th e) None of thes
Q.199) At which place, Google will build a new campus?
a) Mumbai b) Agra c) Hyderabad d) Uttar Pradesh e) None of these
Q.200) Jet Airways CEO Cramer Ball resigns. Who will become its acting CEO?
a) NareshGoyal b) SubodhKarnik c) GaurangShetty d) AshwaniLohani e) None of these

Answers

1.(B) 2.(C) 3.(C) 4.(C) 5.(E) 6.(E) 7.(A) 8.(C) 9.(E) 10.(D)
11.(E) 12.(C) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(B) 16.(E) 17.(C) 18.(C) 19.(C) 20.(D)
21.(E) 22.(D) 23.(A) 24.(C) 25.(B) 26.(C) 27.(E) 28.(A) 29.(B) 30.(D)
31.(D) 32.(B) 33.(D) 34.(C) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(C) 38.(A) 39.(E) 40.(B)
41.(C) 42.(E) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(C) 46.(E) 47.(E) 48.(C) 49.(E) 50.(A)
51.(B) 52.(E) 53.(A) 54.(C) 55.(C) 56.(D) 57.(B) 58.(D) 59.(D) 60.(E)
61.(B) 62.(D) 63.(E) 64.(C) 65.(A) 66.(A) 67.(B) 68.(C) 69.(D) 70.(C)
71.(D) 72.(A) 73.(E) 74.(C) 75.(A) 76.(B) 77.(C) 78.(C) 79.(D) 80.(A)
81.(D) 82.(A) 83.(B) 84.(E) 85.(C) 86.(C) 87.(E) 88.(B) 89.(D) 90.(D)
91.(B) 92.(A) 93.(A) 94.(E) 95.(B) 96.(D) 97.(A) 98.(E) 99.(D) 100.(E)
101.(E) 102.(A) 103.(A) 104.(D) 105.(E) 106.(E) 107.(A) 108.(B) 109.(B) 110.(C)
111.(E) 112.(E) 113.(C) 114.(D) 115.(D) 116.(C) 117.(B) 118.(C) 119.(B) 120.(B)
121.(B) 122.(A) 123.(D) 124.(B) 125.(C) 126.(A) 127.(B) 128.(E) 129.(B) 130.(C)
131.(C) 132.(D) 133.(E) 134.(A) 135.(B) 136.(C) 137.(C) 138.(D) 139.(A) 140.(B)
141.(D) 142.(C) 143.(A) 144.(D) 145.(C) 146.(B) 147.(B) 148.(A) 149.(A) 150.(A)
151.(A) 152.(E) 153.(A) 154.(A) 155.(A) 156.(C) 157.(B) 158.(D) 159.(C) 160.(C)
161.(C) 162.(B) 163.(A) 164.(B) 165.(B) 166.(A) 167.(D) 168.(D) 169.(D) 170.(A)
171.(D) 172.(C) 173.(B) 174.(B) 175.(D) 176.(D) 177.(C) 178.(D) 179.(D) 180.(C)
181.(D) 182.(B) 183.(D) 184.(B) 185.(B) 186.(C) 187.(B) 188.(B) 189.(A) 190.(A)
191.(C) 192.(C) 193.(D) 194.(A) 195.(B) 196.(B) 197.(D) 198.(B) 199.(C) 200.(C)

Selection process will be based on written test and interview. Written exam pattern will be different for Clerk and PO category. There will be single paper of objective type for Clerk category. Questions will be set on 5 different categories: Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, General Awareness, Marketing Aptitude and Computer Awareness.