RRB – PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

Regional Rural Bank  – OFFICE ASSISTANT EXAM 2012

Part – I: Computer knowledge

1. Computers process into data information by working exclusively-
(a) multimedia (b) words (c) characters (d) numbers (e) none of these
2. which of the following memory chip is programmed during the manufacturing process?
(a) RAM (b) ROM (c) PROM (d) EEPROM (e) none of these
3. A byte is a collection of-
(a) four bits (b) six bits (c) eight bits (d) ten bits (e) eleven bits
4. CD- ROM is an example of
(a) Input device (b) Out device (c) Both input and output (d) Pointing device (e) none of these
5. Volatility is a process of
(a) Computers networks (b) ROM (c) disk (d) software (e) RAM
6. Java is an example of an
(a) machine language (b) assembly language (c) high-level language (d) fourth generation language (e) none of these
7. Which of the following is not one of the four major data processing function of a computers?
(a) Gathering data (b) Processing data into information (c) Analysing the data or information (d) storing the data or information (e) none of these
8. The hardware device commonly referred to as the ‘brain’ of the computer is the
(a) RAM chip (b) data input (c) CPU (d) secondary storage (e) none of these
9. When the computer is working on given instructions, it is called-
(a) output (b) storage (c) processing (d) input (e) none of these
10. An input device that is used widely in supermarkets is-
(a) keyboard (b) mouse (c) trackball (d) Bar code reader (e) none of these
11. Producing output involves-
(a) accepting information from the outside world (b) communication with another computer (c) moving and storing information (d) communicating information to the outside world (e) none of these
12. Compiler is the
(a) name given to the computer operator (b) part of the digital machine to store the information (c) operator of Boolean algebra (d) part of arithmetic logic unit (e) translator of source program to object code
13. A computer programming is-
(a) a set of instructions that enable the computer to solve a problem or perform a task (b) main memory (c) pseudo code (d) a flow chart (e) none of these
14. …………. terminals (formely known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
(a) Data (b) point-of-sale(POS) (c) sales (d) Query (e) none of these
15. ………….. is a cross between human language and a programming language.
(a) Pseudo code (b) Java (c) The java virtual machine (d) The compiler (e) none of these
16. Viruse, Trojan horses and worms are-
(a) able to harm computer system (b) unable to detect if present on computer (c) user-friendly applications (d) harmless applications resident on computer (e) none of these
17. Computer gather data, which means that they allow users to …………. data.
(a) present (b) input (c) output (d) display (e)none of these
18. The components that process data are located in the-
(a) input devices (b) output devices (c) system unit (d) storage component (e) none
19. Software refers to-
(a) The physical components that a computer is made of (b) Firmware (b) programs (d) people ware (e) none of these
20. The shortcut key to print documents is-
(a) Ctrl + D (b) Ctrl + A (c) Ctrl + B (d) Ctrl + C (e) Ctrl + P
21. In the binary language each latter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of-
(a) eight bytes (b) eight kilobytes (c) eight characters (d) eight bits (e) none of these
22. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc are-
(a) task bar (b) windows (c) desktop (d) icons (e)none of these
23. Because of their size and cost, these computers are relatively rare-
(a) mini computers (b) mainframe computer (c)microcomputers (d) Laptops (e) supercomputers
24. RAM is an acronym for……….
(a) Read All Memory (b) Read Any Memory (c) Ready Access Memory (d) Random Area Memory (e) Random Access Memory
25. This type of software works with end-users, application software, and computer hardware to handle the majority of technical details-
(a) communications software (b) application software (c) Utility software (d) system software (e) none of these
26. Special-purpose applications include all of the following except-
(a) web authoring programs (b) database management systems (c) multimedia creation programs (d) virtual reality programs (e) none of these
27. An object typically hides its data, but allows outside code to access-
(a) The methods that operate on the data (b) the data files (c) private data members (d) the pseudo code (e) none of these
28. a rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, program, or messages is referred to as a(n) –
(a) Cell (b) window (c) tuplet (d) field (e) none of these
29. specialized programs designed to allow particular input or output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system are called-
(a) compilers (b) device drivers (c) interpreters (d) operating system (e) none
30. This type of computer is the least powerful, yet the most widely used and fastest growing type of computer……….
(a) Mainframe computers (b)supercomputers (c)minicomputers’ (d)microcomputers (e)none of these
31. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called…….
(a) system software (b) operating system (c) application software (d) utility programs (e) none of these
32. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?
(a) minicomputer (b) mainframe computer (c) supercomputer (d) microcomputer (e) none of these
33. The internal service that provides a multimedia interface to available resources is called………
(a) FTP (b) world wide web (c) Telnet (d) Gopher (e) none of these
34. word processing software is used to create –
(a) database (b) documents (c) spreadsheets (d) electronic (e) none of these
35. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be
(a) distributed (b) cabled (c) centralized (d) open source (e) wireless
36. Menus are a part of the……….
(a) Hardware (b) user interface (c) status bar (d) monitor (e) none of these
37. A program that is used to view websites is called a………..
(a) word processor (b) web viewer (c) spreadsheet (d) search engine (e) browser
38. Which of the following is not an example of a document file?
(a) spreadsheet (b) Memo (c) letter (d) term paper (e) thesis
39. Toolbars contain small outlined areas called………… that provide shortcuts for quick access to commonly used commands.
(a) buttons (b) dials (c) bullets (d) pointers (e)none of these
40. A business’s customer, inventory, and payroll records would best be stored in a………… file.
(a) database (b) document (c) worksheet (d) presentation (e) none of these

Part – II: English

Directions-(41-50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. certain words/pareses have been printed in bold to help you locate from while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time there lived a stone cutter is a small village. He worked hard throughout the day, preparing the shapes that were ordered by his customers. His hands were rough and his clothes were only. One cay he went to the mountain to cut a big stone. It was difficult to work as the weather was extremely hot. After working for several hours, he sat down in the shade of a naerby tree and soon fell asleep. After sometime, he heard the sound of a procession. He woke up and saw many soldiers and attendants walking in the sun, alongside the king who not only rode an elephant but also had an umbrella to keep the sun away. “How wonderful it must be to be a king”, thought the stone cutter. As he thought so, astrange thing happened. The stone cutter found himself dressed in silk clothes and shining jewels. His hands were soft and he was sitting on the elephant. He looked around at the attendants and thought. “how easy it is to be a king,these people are here to serve me”. The procession moved on and the sun grew hotter.

The stone cutter, now the king, became too warm for comfort. He asked the procession to stop so that he could rest for some time. At once the chief of the soldiers bent before the king and said, “Your Majesty, this morning you swore to have me hanged to death it we did not reach the place before the sun set”. The stone cutter felt sorry for him and let the procession go on its way again. “I am powerful, it is true, but how more powerful the sun i would rather be the sun than a king”he thought. At once, he becomes the sun, shining down on the earth.

Its new power was hard to control. It stone too brilliantly and bound up the fields with itgs rays. But no matter how hard it stone. It could not see through the clouds. It was evident that the clouds were even stronger and more powerful than the sun. The sun wished that it would rather be a cloud. Suddenly it found itself turned into a huge dark cloud. It started using its new power. It poured rain down on the fields and caused floods. All the trees and houses were swept away but the boulder. Which once it hard been cutting when it was a stone cutter was unmoved and unchanged. No matter how hard it poured down on the stone. The stone did not move.

The cloud wondered, “That rock is more powerful than i am”. Only a stone cutter could change the rock by his skill. No sooner had it said these words, he found himself sitting on a stone. He picked up his fools and began working.

Directions- (41 -42) choose the word/phrase which is most similar is meaning to the word/phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.

41. Keep the sun away

(a) maintain darkness                 (b) Delay the sunset                   (c) block the sun

(d) stock the shade                      (e) enjoy the shade

42. Evident

(a) Obvious               (b) transparent       (c) known               (d) public               (e) active

Directions (43-45) choose the word which is the most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

43. Let

(a) stopped                (b) punished       (c) allowed             (d) admitted            (e) disciplined

44. Hard

(a) mockingly           (b) badly               (c) leisurely           (d) soft                      (e) aimlessly

45. Strange

(a) wonderful           (b) false                 (c) erratic              (d) orthodox            (e) usual

46. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the story?

(a) the stone cutter                          (b) the king’s procession                  (c) the power of nature

(d) experiments of a king              (e) a dream of a king

47. Why could the king’s procession not be stopped?

(a) the king had promised the queen that he would reach the palace in time

(b) It was getting dark and it was unsafe to halt

(c) It was about to rain and the palace was close by

(d) The soldiers were in a hurry to reach the palace as they were very hungry

(e) none of these

48. Why did the sun wish to become a cloud?

(a) It wanted to cool down the earth by raining

(b) It did not want to set in the evening and be visible even in the night

(c) It assumed that the clouds were stronger than the sun

(d) It wanted to wander in the sky like the clouds did

(e) none of these

49. What problem did the cloud face?

(a) The cloud could not affect the boulder

(b) The cloud had to rain all the time

(c) The cloud brought about a huge flood for which it was punished by the king

(d) The cloud needed the sun for its formation

(e) none of these

50. Why did the desire to become the sun?

(a) This sun was troubling the king and the king desired to take revenge

(b) The king desired to be more powerful than he already was

(c) The chief of the soldiers suggested the king to be the sun

(d) The king would be able to live in the sky, once he were the sun

(e) none of these

Directions (51-55): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered as (a),(b),(c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which wrongly spelt or inappropriate any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentences mark (e), All correct as your answer.

51. The need (a) to be grow should Be mistaken (b) for dissatisfaction (c) With one’s current (d) state. All correct (e).

52. He laiy (a) in the bed to rest, (b) and Within(c) no time dozed(d) off to sleep.All correct (e).

53. It was disappointing(a) to know that despite(b) his best attempts,(c) He hadfailed(d) in the exam. All correct (e).

54. He was so scared(a) after watching(b) the movie(c) that he didn’t sleep for three nights(d) after that. All correct (e).

55. Vijay had always(a) been keen (b) on getting(c) as much education(d) as he could. All correct (e).

Directions (56-60): Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in a proper sequences so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the question given below:

(1) But Gandhiji stuck to his principles and did not copy, thus, having to face scolding and ridicule after the inspector left.

(2) Gandhiji wrote four words correctly, but he could not spell the fifth word ‘kettle’.

(3) The Inspector of schools visited Gandhiji’s school.

(4) Having noticed that except Gandhiji all the five words, the teacher promoted Gandhiji to copy the word from his neighbour’s slate.

(5) He read out five English words to the class and asked all the boys to write them down.

56. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 4 (e) 3
57. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) 1
58. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 1 (e) 4
59. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2 (e) 5
60. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3 (e) 1

Directions (61-70): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part is the sentences. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e) (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any)

61. People who play (a)/their radios too (b)/loud have no(c)/considerations for others.(d)No error(e)

62. The novel has neither (a)/an Interesting (b)/plot, nor any(c)/ Interesting character.(d)No error (e)

63. If you were given a (a) / chance to Live in (b)/some other country,Which (c)/ one would you have Chosen.(d) No error(e)

64. Having lived to(a)/ Paris for two (b)/Years, prakash understands(c)/French reasonably well.(d)No error(e)

65. Reema decided not to(a)/ watch the Movie because (b)/ she had to study For the(c) / quiz to be hold the next. (d)No error(e)

66. Athletes do various (a)/ kinds of Warm (b)/ up activities before(c)/ they Start to running. (d)No error(e)

67. Ramesh will lives(a)/ will Ram Until he(b)/ finds a separate (c)/ house For himself.(d)No error(e)

68. Cows, goats and (a)/ other such Domestic(b) / animals together is (c)/Called livestock.(d)No error(e)

69. Students are likely to(a)/ work on The evenings, (b)/ during the Weekends(c)/ or summer breaks.(d)No error(e)

70. Being able to (a)/ remember a lot of Informations is (b)/ not the same as (c)/Being able to think.(d)No error(e)

Directions (71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, live words are suggested. One of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I wanted….. (71)… myself a sweater. When i asked my mother for some wool. She directed me to the old cloth bag under the stairs. This was the bag…. (72)…. which my mother had over the years…(73)….. all the remains from sweaters, scarves, cardigans and gloves that she had knitted for herself….(74)….the family. When i opened the bag. I screamed ‘what a mess!’. All the wool had tangled itself into a huge knot. I said to my mother, “Its hopeless. All the wool is so badly mixed…..(75)……can i even detangle it, let alone knit a sweater from  it. “she smiled and said,” it’s easier …..(76)….. you think. All you have to do is look for the easiest knot and undo that….(77)……that is done, the next knot will be easier. Just keep on doing this, until all the word is unravelled”……(78)….. as my mother had told me to, and started to loosen and different colours…..(79)…… to emerge. Very soon, instead of one huge untidy bunch of wool i had several neat ball in…….(80)…. of me.

71. (a) own (b) does (c) have (d) prepared (e) knit
72. (a) from (b) on (c) to (d) for (e) in
73. (a) put (b) keep (c) managed (d) instilled (e) hide
74. (a) and (b) with (c) apart (d) aside (e) beside
75. (a) how (b) what (c) where (d) why (e) which
76. (a) that (b) than (c) more (d) those (e) also
77. (a) with (b) along (c) where (d) then (e) once
78. (a) try (b) follow (c) decided (d) did (e) listened
79. (a) began (b) see (c) could (d) came (e) starts
80. (a) search (b) reward (c) close (d) front (e) awe

Part -III: General Awareness

81. Which of the following is the currency of Bahrain?
(a) peso (b) dinar (c) riyal (d) baht (e) kwacha
82. Which of the following organization/bodies formulates the rule of international trade among/between the nations?
(a) world trade organisation (b) asian development bank (c) international monetary fund (d) world bank (e) united nations development
83. which of the following services is provided only by the reserve bank of india?
(a) Compilation of economic data (b)issue of currency notes (c) purchases and sale of gold/gold coins (d) sale of demand drafts (e) safe deposit lockers for keeping valuables
84. Which of the following committees/task force was set up to suggest reforms in banking sector?
(a) task force on infrastrutrue (b) Narasimham committee (c) Rajinder Sachar Committee (d) Swaminathan Committee (e) none of these
85. Pranab Mukherjee won the presidential election against-
(a) P.A. Sangama (b) Pratibha Patil (c) Hamid Ansari (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (e) none of these
86. ‘SEBI’ tightens consent norm was the headline in some papers /magazines recently. What is the full form of SEBI?
(a) secured economy Bureau of India (b) small economy based investment (c) securities and exchange board of India (d) severe ecological balance and internet (e) society for ecological balance and internet
87. Which of the following is the capital of Australia?
(a) perth (b) sydney (c) Hobert (d) darwin (e) Canberra
88. Which of the following nations is not the member of OPEC?
(a) Algebra (b) Iran (c) Libya (d) Qatar (e) France
89. Ms. Christine lagarde is the-
(a) managing director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) (b) President, world Bank (c) Secretary General of UNO (d) Foreign Minister of Russia (e) none of these
90. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football?
(a) Baseline (b) chop (c) back pass (d) drop shot (e) grand slam
91. Which of the following is a public sector unter taking?
(a) Axis Bank (b) Reliance power (c) Hindustan motors (d) Indian oil corporation ltd. (e) Ambuja cements
92. Ms. Hillary Clinton who was on a visit to India in May 2012 is the secretary of state of-
(a) Britain (b) France (c) USA (d) Germany (e) none of these
93. The 6th world water forum organized in march 2012 in-
(a) London (b) Tokyo (c) Perth (d) Berlin (e) Marseilles
94. Which of the following countries had launched a spy satellite Kobalt-M in may 2012?
(a) France (b) China (c) Iran (d) Russia (e) USA
95. Which of the following countries is the newest member of the FIFA?
(a) south sudan (b) Bangladesh (c) Brazil (d) Cuba (e) Chile
96. Which of the following is the name of a Patton Tank developed in India?
(a) Agni (b) Arjun (c) Shakthi (d) Basant (e) Pawan
97. Jim Yong Kim has taken over as the new president of-
(a) world Bank (b) IMF (c) ADB (d) UNESCO (e) Bank of America
98. Which of the following is a food grain grown in India?
(a) Rose (b) Mustard (c) Sunflower (d) Banana (e) Paddy
99. Dr. D. Subbarao is a well known name in the field of-
(a) science and tecnology (b) Politics (c) Sports (d) Banking (e) Literature
100. Viswanathan Anand is a world famous-
(a) Cricket player (b) Chess Player (c) hockey player (d) golf player (e) lawn Tennis player
101. Which of the following is decided by the RBI?
(a) interest rate on time deposits (b) Rent of safe deposit vaults (c) inflation rate (d) dearness allowance to govt. employees (e) cash reserve ratio
102. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a period of-
(a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) 3 years (e) 6 ½ years
103. Which of the following acts ensures that every child gets school education?
(a) RTI Act (b) RTE Act (c) apperntice Act (d) Govt. Grants Act (e) none of these
104. Which of the following books is written by Abita Desai?
(a) where shall we Go this summer (b) A general and his Army (c) An eye to China (d) Between hope and history (e) Coolie
105. Which of the following awards is given to cine persons for Their life time achievement?
(a) Saraswati Samman (b) Kalidas Samman (c) Arjuna Award (d) Dada Saheb Phalke Award (e) Kirti Chakra
106. Commonwealth Games-2014 will be organized in-
(a) London (b) New Delhi (c) Glasgow (d) Toronto (e) Wellington
107. Who amomg the following is a Cabinet Minister in Unoin Cabinet of India?
(a) Sachin pilot (b) Milind Deora (c) A.K.Antony (d) Rahul Gandhi (e) none of these
108. Which of the following statements is true about Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana launched by the govt of India?
(a) This schemes is only for children upto 14 years of age (b) Scheme was launched in 1983 but was launched in 1983 but was withdraw in 2000 (c) In 12th five year plan about 7 crore families will be provided insurance cover under the scheme (d) all those who are above 60 will get an insurance coverf of Rs. 10 lakh (e) none of these
109. What does the letter ‘C’ denote in the term ‘CBS’ as used in blanking operations?
(a) central (b) critical (c) commercial (d) crore (e) capital
110. Who among the following is the foreign secretary of India at present?
(a) Ajit Seth (b) S.K. Tripathi (c) Pulok Chatterjee (d) Mukul Joshi (e) none of these
111. Who among the following was a famous author of Sanskrit language?
(a) Kalidas (b) Mirabai (c) Tulsidas (d) Jaidev (e) Raskhan
112. Deepika kumari’s name is associated with-
(a) swimmming (b) archery (c) Billiards (d) Golf (e) Cricket
113. which of the following countries has imposed new sanctions on Iran and Syria?
(a) India (b) sri lanka (c) Russia (d) USA (e) South Africa
114. Which of the following places in India does not have a nuclear power point?
(a) Narora (b) Rawatbhata (c) Silchar (d) Tarapur (e)Kalpakkam
115. Who among the following is from Trinamool Congress party?
(a) srikant Jena (b) Navin Jindal (c) Gurudas Dasgupta (d)Dinesh Trivedi (e) Sanjay Nirupam
116. which of the following terms is not associated with banking/finance?
(a) RTGS (b) SLR (c) Repo Rate (d) credit (e) LBW
117. Oscar awards are given in the field of-
(a) economics (b) social service (c) literature (d) films (e) sports
118. Trophies is associated with the game of cricket?
(a) Ranji trophy (b) Davis Cup (c) Thomas Cup (d) Nehru Trophy (e) Agha khan Cup
119. Which of the following is a union territory of India?
(a) Uttarkhand (b) Chandigarh (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Kerala (e) west Bengal
120. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football?
(a) Baseline (b) chop (c) back pass (d) drop shot (e) grand slam
Directions (121 – 135): What should come in the place of the questions (?) In the following questions?
121. v? + 5168 = 9528 – 4292
(a) 4624 (b) 3392 (c) 6084 (d) 2304 (e) None of these
122. 56% of 400 + ? = (3/5) of 800 + 132
(a) 144 (b) 388 (c) 302 (d) 288 (e) None of these
123. image009
(a) 65 (4/5) (b) 108 (1/3) (c) 60 (4/5) (d) 65 (2/5) (e) None of these
124. 7864 – 3028 = 6.5 × ?
(a) 744 (b) 4836 (c) 31434 (d) 1488 (e) None of these
125. 15 % of 650 + 35 % of 80 = ?
(a) 125.5 (b) 145.5 (c) 140.5 (d) 69.5 (e) None of these
126. image023
(a) 125/42 (b) 14 (3/14) (c) 10 (3/14) (d) 13 (3/14) (e) None of these
127. 1.236 + 78.35 + 0.7136 = ?
(a) 70.2996 (b) 90.2996 (c) 60.2996 (d) 80.3996 (e) None of these
128. image035
(a) 286.73 (b) 54.2 (c) 255 (d) 548.33 (e) None of these
129. 6192 ÷ 36 – 19 = ?
(a) 364.24 (b) 151 (c) 191 (d) 153 (e) None of these
130. 7613 – ? = 1001 + 5588
(a) 2025 (b) 1024 (c) 2124 (d) 925 (e) None of these
131. 636.66 + 366.36 + 363.33 = ?
(a) 1366.25 (b) 1636.35 (c) 1336.35 (d) 1363.25 (e) None of these
132. 3251 + 6205 + 1109 = ?
(a) 10545 (b) 11585 (c) 10525 (d) 11535 (e) None of these
133. ? ÷ 26 × 65 = 1105
(a) 424 (b) 478 (c) 456 (d) 442 (e) None of these
134. 32.4 × 11.5 × 8.5 = ?
(a) 3149.5 (b) 3167.1 (c) 3129.1 (d) 3162.5 (e) None of these
135. 99 ÷ 9 ÷ 0.5 = ?
(a) 28 (b) 34 (c) 22 (d) 37 (e) None of these
Directions (136-140): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions?
136. 584 – 32 × 4 ÷ 12 = ?
(a) 2220 (b) 444 (c) 72 (d) 563 (e) None of these
137. ?287496= ?
(a) 44 (b) 55 (c) 66 (d) 77 (e) None of these
138. 14181 ÷ 87 × ? = 122.25
(a) 6 (b) 2/3 (c) 8 (d) ¾ (e) None of these
139. 12.5 % of ? + 14.4 % of 550 = 159.2
(a) 640 (b) 550 (c) 620 (d) 540 (e) None of these
140. (71)²+ (?)² – (56)² = 6666
(a) 59 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 67 (e) None of these
Directions (141-145): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following series?
141. 5, 6, 16, 57, ?, 1245
(a) 244 (b) 148 (c) 296 (d) 271 (e) none of these
142. 12, ?, 168, 504, 1260, 2520
(a) 96 (b) 59 (c) 61 (d) 48 (e) none of these
143. 4, 9, ?,599, 3599
(a) 117 (b) 347 (c) 258 (d) 174 (e) none of these
144. 177, 170, 159, 146, ?,110
(a) 132 (b) 106 (c) 129 (d) 127 (e) none of these
145. 2, 3, 11,38,102, ?
(a) 402 (b) 182 (c) 227 (d) 168 (e) none of these
146. On a particular day, sweets to be equally distributed among 495 students of a school. However, on that particular day 396 students from a nearby school also joined them. Hence each student present on that day got four sweets less. How many sweets were distributed?
(a) 5445 (b) 4950 (c) 4455 (d) 3960 (e) none of these
147. A student requires 324 pencils in 6 years. How many dozen pencils will the require in 14 years?
(a) 52 (b) 64 (c) 59 (d) 62 (e) none of these
148. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘REPLACE’ be arranged?
(a) 2630 (b) 5040 (c) 1680 (d) 2580 (e) none of these
149. A particular sum was divided among A,B and C in the ratio 2:6:7 respectively. If the amount received by A was Rs. 4908, what was the difference between the amounts received by B and C?
(a) Rs. 2454 (b) Rs. 3494 (c) 2135 (d) Rs. 2481 (e) none of these
150. The average of four consecutive even numbers P, Q, R and S respectively (in increasing order) is 51. What is the product of P and R?
(a) 2592 (b) 2400 (c) 2600 (d) 2808 (e) none of these
151. What is the least number to be added to 4523 to make it a perfect square?
(a) 101 (b) 34 (c) 238 (d) 121 (e) none of these
152. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 7568. What is 150% of the sum of the two numbers?
(a) 204 (b) 261 (c) 304 (d) 198 (e) none of these
153. Length of the floor of a rectangular auditorium is 6 m more than the radius of a circle with a circumference of 572 m. The perimeter of the floor of the rectangular auditorium is 356 m. What will be cost of flooring the auditorium, if the cost of flooring is Rs. 12/m2?
(a) Rs. 87,954 (b) Rs. 91,236 (c) Rs. 94,284 (d) Rs. 75,790 (e) none of these
154. A car covers a distance of 528 km in a certain time at a speed of 66 km/hr. How much distance would a truck cover at an average speed which is 24 km/hr less than that of the speed of the car in time/which is 7 hours more than that taken by the car?
(a) 336 km (b) 682 km (c) 598 km (d) 630 km (e) none of these
155. The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. The ratio of their ages four years ago was10:3 respectively. What is the difference between the present ages of the man and his son?
(a) 28 years (b) 16 years (c) 26 years (d) 44 tears (e) none of these
156. What would be the compound interest on an amount of Rs. 7,790 at the ratio of 10 p.c.p.a after two years?
(a) Rs. 1532-60 (b) Rs. 1495-90 (c) Rs. 1653-50 (d) Rs. 1635-90 (e) none of these
157. The difference between 20% of a number and 4/5 th of the same number is 2499. What is 2/7 the of that Number?
(a) 2156 (b) 1196 (c) 1090 (d) 1465 (e) none of these
158. The average height of 27 persons was recorded as 162 cm. If the height of shreyas was deleted from the observation, the average height reduced by 1 cm. What was shreya’s height?
(a) 184 cm (b) 226 cm (c) 179 cm (d) 186 cm (e) none of these
159. The cost of 14 keyboards and 8 mouse pads is Rs. 26.40. what is the cost of 35 keyboards and 20 mouse pads?
(a) Rs. 65,600 (b) Rs. 58,800 (c) Rs. 76,550 (d) cannot be determined (e) none
160. In order to pass in an examination, a student is required to get 342 marks out of the aggegate marks. Neha got 266 marks and was declared fail by 8 per cent. What is the minimum passing percentage of the examination?
(a) 28 (b) 36 (c) 33 (d) 26 (e) none of these

Directions (161-162): study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Sunil started walking from point A. He walked 6 metres towoards east to reach point B from B he look a right turn and walked 3 metres to reach point C. From point C he took to right turn and walked 10 metres to reach point D. From point D he took a left turn and walked 4 metres to reach point E. From point E. He walked 4 metres east to reach point F point G exactly mid-way between point C and point D.

161. If sunil walks 4 metres to the south of point F, how far and in which direction will be be from point G?

(a) 1 metres towards east             (b) 2 metres towards east

(c) 1 metres towards west            (d) 2 metres towards west                (e) 1.5 metres towards east

162. How far and in which direction is point F from point A?

(a) 1 metres towards north           (b) 6 metres towards south

(c) 8 metres towards south          (d) 6 metres towards north           (e) none of these

163. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a) think            (b) reflect          (c) speak         (d) consider      (e) ponder

164. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BARGAINED, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) ae they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) two               (b) three          (c) none            (d) one            (e) more than three

Directions (165-167): study the given information carefully and answer the given questions

In a group of six people P,Q, R, S,T and U, each having a different weight, S is heavier than Q, R is lighter than only T and P. Q is not the lightest. P is not the heaviest.

165. who amongst the following is the lightest?

(a) T                      (b) P                         (c) R                       (d) U                             (e) none of these

166. who amongst the following is the second lightest?

(a) R                     (b) S                         (c) U                       (d) T                              (e) P

167. How many people are lighter than S?

(a) none              (b) three                  (c) two                   (d) more than three    (e) one

168. Which of the following will come next in the following series?

9 1 9 8  2 9 8 7 3 9 8 7 6 4 9 8 7 6 5 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 6 9 8 7 6 5 4

(a) 7                     (b) 8                        (c) 3                   (d) 2                                 (e) 4

169. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order? ZA      BY      XC      DW?

(a) VF                 (b) EU                     (c) UE               (d) EV                             (e) VE

170. Fifteen girls are standing in a straight the facing north. Sudha is standing eleventh ninth from end.r Radha is standing ninth from the left end. Meena is standing exactly between sudha and Radha. How many girls are standing to the right of Meena?

(a) eight              (b) seven                (c) nine             (d) six                            (e) cannot be determined

Directions (171-175): study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight people P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. T is sitting third to the right of P. W is sitting second to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour P or T. U and Q are immediate neighbours of each other. Q is not an each other. Q is not an immediate neighbour of P. V is not immediate neighbour our of W.

171. What is R’s position with respect to V?

(a) second to the left                    (b) second to the right

(c) third to the right                     (d) third to the left             (e) none of these

172. Four of the following live are alike in a certain way and based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

(a) RQ                      (b) PV                    (c) TP                   (d) US                (e) WT

173. Who is sitting second to the right of the one who is sitting to the immediate right of W?

(a) U                        (b) R                        (c) V                     (d) P                   (e) Q

174. How many people are sitting between U and W when counted from the left side of U?

(a) three                (b) none                   (c) more than three       (d) two         (e) one

175. Who is sitting exactly between T and S?

(a) U                      (b) Q                         (c) W                                 (d) V            (e) R

Directions (176-180): In each of the questions below., two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known tests.

Give answer:

(a) if only conclusion I follows

(b) if only conclusion II follows

(c) if either conclusion I or II follows

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows

(e) if both conclusion I and II follows

176. Statements:

All stones are pebbles

All pebbles are rocks

Conclusions:

I. All stones are rocks

II. All rocks are pebbles

177. Statements:

All kings are rulers

Some rulers are queens

Conclusions:

I. Some kings are queens

II. Atleast some queens are rulers

178. Statements:

Some gardens are parks

Some parks are areas

Conclusions:

I. Atleast some areas are parks

II. No garden is an area

179. Statements:

No letter is a fax

All messages are faxes

Conclusions:

I. No messages is a letter

II. Atleast some faxes are messages

180. Statements:

Some boards are plains

No plains is a square

Conclusions:

I. All squares are boards

II. All plains are boards.

Directions (181-185): Eight people- A,B,C,D,E,F and H are sitting in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting fifth to the right of A. D is sitting fifth to the right of E. E is to the immediate right of A. H is third to the left of D. B is third to the right of G. G is an immediate neighbour of A.

181. What is E’s position with respect to C?

(a) second to the left                 (b) third to the right                (c) fourth to the right

(d) third to the left                    (e) none of these

182. Who is sitting third to the right of the one who is sitting sixth from the right end of the above arrangement?

(a) D                          (b) C                        (c) E                          (d) H                        (e) none of these

183. Who amongst the following are sitting at the extreme ends of the line?

(a) G and D             (b) A and D             (c) G and F              (d) E and D             (e) A and B

184. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

(a) HD                    (b) BE                         (c) EC                       (d) AH                     (e) GB

185. If all eight persons are asked to sit in an alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating position?

(a) three                (b) More than three         (c) one               (d) two                     (e) none of these

Directions (186-190): In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.

Give answer:

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

(e) If both conclusions I and II follows

186. Statements:

G = F = L = J; J = K = H

Conclusions:

I. H = G            II. G < H

187. Statements:

P < R < S < T < U

Conclusions:

I. U < R            II. T > P

188. Statements:

T > U = V > W; X<Y=W>Z

Conclusions:

I. Z > U            II. W < T

189. statements:

K < L < M < N; M < O < P

Conclusions:

I. P > K           II. N > O

190. Statements:

B < A < C; A > D = E

Conclusions:

I. B = E           II. C > E

1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(e) 6.(c) 7.(e) 8.(c)
9.(c) 10.(d) 11.(d) 12.(e) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(a)
17.(b) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(e) 21.(d) 22.(d) 23.(e) 24.(e)
25.(c) 26.(d) 27.(c) 28.(a) 29.(d) 30.(c) 31.(b) 32.(c)
33.(b) 34.(b) 35.(e) 36.(c) 37.(e) 38.(a) 39.(a) 40.(a)
41.(c) 42.(a) 43.(a) 44.(c) 45.(e) 46.(a) 47.(e) 48.(c)
49.(a) 50.(b) 51.(d) 52.(a) 53.(d) 54.(e) 55.(a) 56.(b)
57.(c) 58.(b) 59.(c) 60.(a) 61.(d) 62.(e) 63.(d) 64.(a)
65.(d) 66.(d) 67.(a) 68.(c) 69.(b) 70.(b) 71.(e) 72.(e)
73.(a) 74.(a) 75.(a) 76.(b) 77.(e) 78.(d) 79.(a) 80.(d)
81.(b) 82.(a) 83.(b) 84.(b) 85.(a) 86.(c) 87.(e) 88.(e)
89.(a) 90.(c) 91.(d) 92.(c) 93.(e) 94.(d) 95.(a) 96.(b)
97.(a) 98.(e) 99.(e) 100.(d) 101.(b) 102.(e) 103.(b) 104.(b)
105.(a) 106.(d) 107.(c) 108.(c) 109.(e) 110.(d) 111.(e) 112.(a)
113.(b) 114.(d) 115.(c) 116.(d) 117.(e) 118.(d) 119.(a) 120.(b)
121.(b) 122.(c) 123.(e) 124.(e) 125.(d) 126.(b) 127.(c) 128.(b)
129.(a) 130.(c) 131.(e) 132.(e) 133.(d) 134.(b) 135.(c) 136.(e)
137.(c) 138.(d) 139.(a) 140.(b) 141.(a) 142.(d) 143.(e) 144.(c)
145.(c) 146.(c) 147.(e) 148.(e) 149.(a) 150.(e) 151.(a) 152.(b)
153.(e) 154.(d) 155.(a) 156.(a) 157.(b) 158.(c) 159.(e) 160.(c)
161.(c) 162.(a) 163.(c) 164.(b) 165.(d) 166.(e) 167.(c) 168.(c)
169.(e) 170.(a) 171.(b) 172.(c) 173.(e) 174.(e) 175.(d) 176.(a)
177.(b) 178.(a) 179.(e) 180.(d) 181.(d) 182.(b) 183.(a) 184.(b)
185.(c) 186.(c) 187.(b) 188.(b) 189.(a) 190.(d) 191.(d) 192.(c)
193.(c) 194.(e) 195.(d) 196.(d) 197.(c) 198.(c) 199.(d) 200.(c)

 Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

Regional Rural Bank

GROUP A OFFICERS EXAM 2012

Test-I Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of the question- sets below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer:

(a) if only conclusion I follows.

(b) if only conclusion II follows.

(c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

(e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

(1-3): Statements:

All stars are bottles.

Some bottles are papers.

No paper is a calendar.

1. Conclusions:

I. All stars being papers is a possibility

II. No calendar is a bottle.

2. Conclusions:

I. All calendars being stars is a possibility

II. At least some bottles are stars.

3. Conclusions:

I. At least some calendars are bottles

II. No calendar is a star.

(4-5): Statements:

Some pencils are blankets.

All blankets are erasers.

4. Conclusions:

I. At least some pencils are erasers

II. All erasers being pencils is a possibility.

5. Conclusions:

I. No eraser is a pencil

II. All blankets being pencils is a possibility.

Directions (6-10): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) if the data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(d) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.

6. Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?

I. P is taller than Q. T is not the tallest

II. R is taller than P. S in not the tallest.

7. In which direction is point E, with reference to point S?

I. Point D is to the east of point E. Point E is to the south of point F.

II. Point F is to the north-west to point S. Point D is to the north of point S.

8. In which month of the year did Rahul go abroad for a vacation?

I. Rahul correctly remembers that he went for a vacation in the first half of the year

II. Rahul’s son correctly remembers that they went for a vacation after 31st March but before 1st May.

9. On which day of the same week is Ramesh’s exam scheduled (Monday being the first day of the week)?

I. Ramesh correctly remembers that his exam is scheduled on a day after Tuesday, But before Thursday of the same week.

II. Ramesh’s father correctly remembers that Ramesh’s exam is scheduled on the third day of the week.

10. How many marks has Suman scored in the test? (Maximum marks 20)

I. Suman scored two-digit marks. Her marks were not in decimals.

II. Suman scored more than 9 marks in the test.

Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the information given below and answer the given questions:

In a certain code ‘facing problems with health’ is coded as ‘mlphltngisnk’, ‘health problems on rise’ is coded as ‘hltsartvmlp’, ‘rise with every challenge’ is coded as ‘snkrtvlneriy’ and ‘facing challenge each day’ is coded as ‘ngiriynophus’.

11. What could be a code for “lne”?

(a) facing                  (b) with                     (c) every                 (d) rise                    (e) challenge

12. “riyrtvroi” could be a code for which of the following?

(a) rise above challenge                (b) rise health challenge                 (c) day rise challenge

(d) with rise challenge                  (e) challenge every rise

13. Which of the following is the code for “facing”?

(a) nop                      (b) rtv                      (c) ngi                        (d) snk                      (e) sa

14. “riysnkmlp” could be a code for which of the following?

(a) problem every day                         (b) challenge with health                        (c) with health day

(d) every challenge facing                  (e) challenge facing with

15. Which of the following is the code for ‘day’?

(a) riy                  (b) nop                     (c) ngi                  (d) hus                  (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (16-21): Study the information given below and answer the given questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle, but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing outside and four of them are facing the centre.

(A) E faces outside. Both the immediate neighbours of E face the centre. H sits second to the right of E. B sits third to the left of E.

(B) D faces the centre. Both the immediate neighbours of D face outside.

(C) G sits second to the left of A. B sits third to the right of H.

(D) F is an immediate neighbour of D. C is an immediate neighbour of G.

(E) D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

16. Who amongst the following sits on the immediate right of H?

(a) A                          (b) D                     (c) C                        (d) G                   (e) None of these

17. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of A?

(a) D                          (b) E                    (c) F                        (d) A                    (e) None of these

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, based on the information given above and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) HA                       (b) FH                 (c) GC                    (d) DA                  (e) AE

19. If all the people are made to sit in an alphabetical order, in clockwise direction, starting from A, the position of whom amongst the following remains the same (excluding A)?

(a) E                          (b) F                     (c) C                       (d) G                     (e) None of these

20. How many people are seated between A and C (counting clockwise from A)?

(a) Two                    (b) Four                (c) None               (d) One                 (e) Three

21. Who amongst the following sits exactly between F and C (and is also their neighbour)?

(a) E                         (b) B                       (c) G                     (d) A                      (e) None of these

Directions (22-30): Study the information given below and answer the given questions.

Nine people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J stay in a building, but not necessarily in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one person stays on one floor. All of them own one car each, and each car is of a different colour, ie blue, grey, white, black, yellow, green, red, orange and pink, but not necessarily in the same order. The Ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 9.

H owns a black-coloured car and stays on an even-numbered floor. A Stays on any even-numbered floor below the floor on which H stays. The one who owns an orange coloured car stays on the fourth floor. E stays on the second floor and owns a white coloured car. The one who owns a pink-coloured car stays on the third floor. A does not own a green-coloured car. There are two floors between the floors on which the people owning the red and the black-coloured cars stay. C owns a grey-coloured car. There are three floors between the floors on which C and G stay. D stays on a floor immediately above J’s floor. There is one floor between the floors on which F and G stay. F does not own the pink- coloured car. The one who owns the blue car stays on the topmost floor. F does not stay on the ground floor.

22. Who amongst the following owns the green-coloured car?

(a) D                           (b) J                (c) G                  (d) F                             (e) None of these

23. Who amongst the following stays on the topmost floor?

(a) F                            (b) G               (c) D                  (d) C                             (e) None of these

24. A owns a car of which of the following colours?

(a) Orange                (b) Pink          (c) Yellow         (d) Blue                        (e) None of these

25. Who stays on the floor which is exactly between the floor on which H stays and the floor on which A stays?

(a) B                          (b) G                 (c) C                  (d) F                           (e) None of these

26. How many floors are there between the floor on which J stays and the floor on which C stays?

(a) One                     (b) Two            (c) None           (d) Three                    (e) More than three

27. Which of the following is true as per the given information?

(a) B stays on a floor immediately below the floor on which H stays.

(b) G stays on a floor immediately above the floor on which A stays.

(c) F stays on the eighth floor

(d) D owns the orange-coloured car

(e) None is true

28. On which of the following floors does G stays?

(a) 1st                         (b) 6th              (c) 5th               (d) 7th                      (e) None of these

29. B is related to C in the same way as H is related to E as per the given information. Following the same pattern, F is related to which of the following?

(a) J                             (b) D                 (c) A                  (d) G                         (e) None of these

30. What is the colour of the car of the person who stays on the ground floor?

(a) Red                        (b) Green        (c) Yellow        (d) Grey                     (e) None of these

31. How many meaningful words can be made with the alphabets D, R, H and A each being used only once in each word?

(a) None                     (b) One             (c) Two           (d) Three                    (e) More than three

32. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TELEPATHY, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) One                       (b) Two             (c) None         (d) Three                    (e) More than three

Direction (33-35): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

33. (a) Repair           (b) Mend          (c) Correct     (d) Rectify                  (e) Trouble

34. (a) Employed     (b) Trained      (c) Hired        (d) Appointed            (e) Commissioned

35. (a) Quick             (b) Brisk           (c) Quiet        (d) Fast                        (e) Rapid

36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group if the English alphabetical series is broken into two equal halves, i.e. the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13 alphabets are clubbed separately?

(a) FH                            (b) SU              (c) MA             (d) CK                       (e) LB

Directions (37-40): In each of these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.

Give answer:

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true.

(c) if either conclusion I or II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(e) if both the conclusions I and II are true.

(37-38): Statements:

A > B = C; E = F; E = D > C

37. Conclusions:

I. B < E II. F < B

38. Conclusions:

I. C < F II. A > C

(39-40): Statements:

I = J; K < l > M; J = K; G = H = I

39. Conclusions:

I H < J II. J < G

40. Conclusions:

I. L > J II. J < M

Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

 

 

Directions (Q. 51-60): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

51. 74 + 12 × 0.75 – 6 = ?

(a) 72                       (b) 67                   (c) 52                    (d) 77              (e) None of these

52. 2432 ÷ ? =

(a) 12                       (b) 14                   (c) 18                    (d) 16              (e) None of these

53. 8888 + 848 + 88 – ? = 7337 + 737

(a) 1750                 (b) 1650               (c) 1550                 (d) 1450         (e) None of these

54. 515.15 – 15.51 – 1.51 – 5.11- 1.11= ?

(a) 491.91             (b) 419.91             (c) 499.19             (d) 411.19       (e) None of these

55. (?)2 + (123)2 = (246)2 – (99)2 – 2462

(a) 184                  (b) 186                  (c) 182                   (d) 180          (e) None of these

56. 414 × ? × 7 = 127512

(a) 36                   (b) 40                    (c) 44                     (d) 48           (e) None of these

57. [(84)2 ÷ 28 × 12] ÷ 24 =7 ×?

(a) 36                  (b) 40                     (c) 19                      (d) 21           (e) None of these

58. (7.9 % of 134) – (3.4 % of 79) = ?

(a) 8.1 (b) 7.8 (c) 8.6 (d) 7.3 (e) None of these

59. (3)8 × (3)4 = ?

(a) (27)3              (b) (729)2             (c) (27)5                (d) (729)3      (e) None of these

60. 24.424 +  5.656 + 1. 131 + 0. 089 = ?

(a) 31.003           (b) 31.3                (c) 31.03               (d) 31.0003    (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 61-63): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

61. 987, 587, 331, 187, 123, (?)

(a) 104                 (b) 113                  (c) 107                   (d) 114             (e) None of these

62. 125, 171, 263, 401, 585, (?)

(a) 835                (b) 815                 (c) 792                    (d) 788          (e) None of these

63. 121, 132, 167, 226, 309, (?)

(a) 424                (b) 413                 (c) 427                    (d) 416           (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 64-65): In the following number series, only one is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

64. 454, 327, 648, 524, 842, 713, 1036

(a) 327                 (b) 648               (c) 521                    (d) 842           (e) 713

65. 72.5, 86, 113, 168, 275, 491, 923

(a) 86                  (b) 113                 (c) 168                    (d) 275           (e) 491

Directions (Q. 66-70): In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer –

(a) If x< y

(b) if x = y

(c) if x = y

(d) if x = y

(e) if x > y

66.

(i) 4x2 – 8x +3 =0

(ii) 2y2 – 7y +6 =0

67.

(i) X2 + x -6 = 0

(ii) 2y2 +13y +21=0

68.

(i) 8x2 +3x=38

(ii) 6y2 + 34= 29y

69.

(i) X2=4

(ii) y2 +6y +9 = 0

70.

(i) 2x +3y=4

(ii) 3x +2y=11

71. Rita’s present age is four times her daughter’s present age and two-thirds of her mother’s present age. The total of the present ages of all of them is 154 years. What is the difference between Rita’s and her mother’s present age?
(a) 28 years (b) 34 years (c) 32 years (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
72. The ratio between the three angles of a quadrilateral is 3 : 5 : 9. The value of the fourth angle of the quadrilateral is 71°. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?
(a) 82° (b) 106° (c) 102° (d) 92° (e) None of these
73. If twenty five percent of three-sevenths of twenty six percent of a number is 136.5, what is the number?
(a) 6300 (b) 5600 (c) 4800 (d) 4900 (e) None of these
74. The ratio between the speed of a truck, car and train is 3:8:12. The car moved uniformly and covered a distance of 1040 km in 13 hours. What is the average speed of the truck and the train together?
(a) 75Km/hr (b) 60Km/hr (c) 48km/hr (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
75. The second largest and the smallest angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 6:5. The difference between the second largest angle and the smallest angle of the triangle is equal to 9°. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest angles of the triangle?
(a) 36° (b) 24° (c) 12° (d) 18° (e) None of these
76. The circumference of a circle is twice the perimeter of a rectangle. The area of the circle is 5544 Sq cm. What is the area of the rectangle if the length of the rectangle is 40cm?
(a) 1120 Sq cm (b) 1020 Sq cm (c) 1140 Sq cm (d) 1040 Sq cm (e) None of these
77. A 476-metre-long moving train crosses a pole in 14 seconds. The length of a platform is equal to the distance covered by the train in 20 Seconds. A man crosses the same platform in 7 minutes and 5 seconds. What is the speed of the man in metre/second?
(a) 1.8 m/s (b) 1.4 m/s (c) 1.6 m/s (d) 2 m/s (e) 1.2 m/s
78. Two-Thirds of Ranjit’s monthly salary is equal to Raman’s monthly Salary. Raman’s Monthly salary is thirty percent more than Pawan’s monthly salary. Pawan’s Monthly salary is `32000. What is Ranjit’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs. 64200 (b) Rs. 62500 (c) Rs. 64500 (d) Rs. 62400 (e) None of these
79. The simple interest accrued on a sum of a certain Principal is Rs. 35, 6727 in seven years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 2 pcpa in 2 years?
(a) Rs. 2573.48 (b) Rs. 2564.86 (c) Rs. 2753.86 (d) Rs. 2654.48 (e) None of these
80. In a class there are 60 students, out of whom 15 percent are girls. Each girl’s monthly fee is 250 and each boy’s monthly fee is 34 percent more than a girl. What is the total monthly fees of girls and boys together?
(a) Rs. 19335 (b) Rs. 18435 (c) Rs. 19345 (d) Rs. 19435 (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions.
81. The number of teachers in University B is approximately what percent of the total number of teachers in University D and University E together?
(a) 55 (b) 59 (c) 49 (d) 45 (e) 65
82. If twenty five percent of the teachers in University C are females, What is the number of male teacher in University C?
(a) 922 (b) 911 (c) 924 (d) 912 (e) None of these
83. The difference between the total number of teachers in University A, University B and University C together and the total number of teachers in University D, University E and University F together is exactly equal to the number of teachers of which University?
(a) University A (b) University B (c) University C (d) University D (e) University F
84. If one-thirty sixth of the teachers from University F are Professors and the salary of each professor is Rs.96000, What will be the total salary of all the professors together from University F?
(a) Rs.307.2 Lakh (b) Rs 32.64 lakh (c) Rs 3.072 Lakh (d) Rs3.264 lakh (e) None of these
85. What is the average number of teachers in University A, University C, University D and University F together?
(a) 854 (b) 3546 (c) 3456 (d) 874 (e) None of these
Directions: (Q. 86-90): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow Number of cars (in thousands) of two models (Basic and Premium) produced by five different companies in five different years.
86. The number of cars of premium model produced by company D in the year 2009 was approximately what percent of the total number of cars (both models) produced by Company C in the year 2007?
(a) 70 (b) 51 (c) 56 (d) 61 (e) 66
87. What was the approximate percentage decrease in the number of cars of basic model produced by Company B in the year 2009 as compared to the previous year?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 80 (e) 85
88. What was the average number of cars of premium model produced by Company A over all the years together?
(a) 9000 (b) 8000 (c) 6000 (d) 48000 (e) None of these
89. In which year was the difference between the basic model and premium model of cars produced by Company E the second highest?
(a) 2010 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2008 (e) 2009
90. In which Company did the production of cars of premium model consistently increase from the year 2006 to the year 2010?
(a) Both C and E (b) Both C and D (c) C only (d) D only (e) E only
Directions (Q. 91-95): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
91. What was the difference between the total monthly salary of Arun in all the years together and Suman’s monthly income in the year 2007?
(a) Rs 1.24 lakh (b) Rs 1.14 lakh (c) Rs 11.4 lakh (d) Rs 12.4 lakh (e) None of these
92. What is the ratio of Arun’s monthly income in the year 2006, Suman’s monthly income in the year 2007 and Jyoti’s monthly income in the year 2005?
(a) 6:3:5 (b) 6:4:5 (c) 5:6:4 (d) 5:4:7 (e) None of these
93. In Which year was the difference between Jyoti’s and Arun’smontly income the second highest?
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2009 (e) 2010
94. The monthly income of Suman in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2010?
(a) 72 (b) 89 (c) 83 (d) 67 (e) 95
95. What was the percentage increase in the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2008 as compared to the previous year?
(a) 50 (b) 150 (c) 160 (d) 60 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

A Company produced five different products, Viz mobile phone, pen drive, calculator, television and washing machine. The total number of all the five products is 1650. 24% of the total number of products is mobile phones. One-sixth of the total number of products is pen drives. 14% of the total number of products is calculators. Remaining products are either television or washing machine. The number of washing machines is 50 more than the number of televisions produced.

96. What is the ratio of the number of washing machines to the number of calculators produced by the company?

(a) 17:11                 (b) 19:11                  (c) 11:17                   (d) 19:13                  (e) None of these

97. If 24 percent of the pen drives are defective, What is the number of pen drives which are not defective?

(a) 209                  (b) 215                     (c) 219                     (d) 225                     (e) None of these

98. The number of televisions produced is approximately what percent of the total number of calculators and washing machines produced together?

(a) 63                     (b) 55                      (c) 59                       (d) 51                         (e) 67

99. What is the difference between the total number of televisions and mobile phones together and the number of calculators produced?

(a) 534                  (b) 524                    (c) 511                      (d) 523                       (e) None of these

100. What is the total number of pen drives, calculators and washing machines produced by the company?

(a) 907                  (b) 917                    (c) 925                      (d) 905                      (e) None of these

Part-III: General Awareness

101. Major producer of mulberry silk in India is
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Jharkhand (c) Karnataka (d) Assam (e) Himachal Pradesh
102. We come across the term ‘PPP’ in financial news nowadays. What does ‘PPP’ represent?
(a) Personal Percapita Power (b) Private Public Partnership (c) Per capita Potential for Purchases (d) Present Purchasing Power (e) Pure Purchase Parity
103. Many times we read the term ‘ECB’ in newspapers. What is the full form’ of ‘ECB’?
(a) Essential Commercial Banking (b) European Credit Borrowing (c) External Credit for Business (d) External Commercial Borrowing (e) None of These
104. What is meant by financial inclusion?
(a) Making available banking services at an affordable cost (b) Opening savings accounts in rural areas without any deposit (c) Opening any type of account without introduction (d) Distributing money through rural branches (e) Distributing wages through bank accounts
105. Which of these countries is the largest producer of milk and milk products in the world?
(a) USA (b) China (c) India (d) New Zealand (e) None of These
106. Which of the following is the most important rabbi crop of India?
(a) Rice (b) Millet (c) Sugarcane (d) Groundnut (e) Mustard
107. Who is the regulatory authority for insurance business in India?
(a) RBI (b) IRDP (c) SEBI (d) NABARD (e) IRDA
108. What is money laundering?
(a) Conversion of assets into cash- (b) Conversion of illegally obtained money into accountable money (c) Conversion of cash into gold (d) Conversion of gold into cash (e) None of These
109. Golden revolution refers to the development of which of the following agricultural products?
(a) Oilseeds (b) Pulses (c) Horticultural products (d) Cereals (e) Fodder
110. Which programme was launched by Government of India to improve irrigation facilities in rural India?
(a) Annapurna Scheme (b) National Social Assistance Programme (c) Integrated Rural Development Programme (d) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (e) National Watershed Development Programme
111. Montek Singh Ahluwalia is holding which of the following positions at present?
(a) Chairman of Planning Commission (b) Governor of RBI (c) Secretary of UNO (d) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister (e) Dy Chairman of Planning Commission
112. Bird flu is a disease which affects and spreads through?
(a) Cattle (b) Sheep (c) Prawn (d) Silkworm (e) Poultry
113. Which country won the Davis Cup tennis tournament 2011 held in December 2011?
(a) Argentina (b) USA (c) Australia (d) Japan (e) Spain
114. Who among the following cricketers recently became the 10th batsman to score 10000 runs in Test Cricket?
(a)MahelaJayawardene (b) Vijay Zol (c)Yuvaraj Singh (d) Younis Khan (e) Umar Akmal
115. The Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) Summit took place in December 2011 in?
(a) Tokyo (b) Moscow (c) New Delhi (d) Paris (e) Perth
116. Who represented India in 12th Consecutive Annual India-Russia Summit held in December 2011?
(a) Smt. PratibhaPatil (b) DrManmohan Singh (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) S M Krishna (e) None of These
117. Which of the following currencies is used in Britain?
(a) Pound (b) Dollar (c) Euro (d) France (e) Pesso
118. Which of the following cups/ trophies is associated with the game of Football?
(a) Grand Prix (b) Rangaswami Cup (c) Wimbledon Trophy (d) Fifa Cup (e) Ranji Trophy
119. The head office of the Bank of Maharashtra is located in which of the following cities?
(a) Kolkata (b) New Delhi (c) Pune (d) Ahmedabad (e) Mumbai
120. Which country hosted the summit of SAARC nations in the year 2011?
(a) India (b) Bangladesh (c) Nepal (d) Maldives (e) Pakistan
121. Which of the following terms is not used in the field of Economics?
(a) Balance of Trade (b) Break Even Point (c) Plasma (d) Fiscal Deficit (e) Capital Account Convertibility
122. “Carbon credit” is concerned with which one of these internationally sensitive issues?
(a) Deforestation (b) Contract farming (c) Rural infrastructure (d) Diamond trading (e) Protection of environment
123. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
(a) Half Nelson (b) Love (c) Back Hand Drive (d)Penalty Stroke (e) Clean Bowled
124. India recently signed a Currency Swap Agreement with which of the following countries?
(a) USA (b) Pakistan (c) Japan (d) Germany (e) Australia
125. What is the full form of the term ASBA?
(a) Allotment Supported by Blocked Amount (b) Application Supported by Bank Amount (c) Allotment Supported by Bank Account (d) Application Supported by Blocked Amount (e) Allotment and Social Banking Amount
126. DipikaPallikal, who won an international tournament recently in Hong Kong is a
(a) Golf Player (b) Badminton Player (c) Squash Player (d) Swimmer (e) Table Tennis Player
127. The term “Deficit Financing” means the Government borrows money from the
(a) IMF (b) Local bodies (c) RBI (d) Large corporates (e) Public at large
128. Regional Rural Banks
(a) Have limited area of operation and access to refinance from NABARD. (b) are required to lend only to weaker sections (c) are mandated to do only narrow banking (d) can only extend agricultural loans (e) have unrestricted area of operation.
129. Ms Christine Lagarde is holding which of the following positions at present?
(a) Chief of Asian Development Bank (b) Chief of International Monetary Fund (c) Chancellor of Germany (d) Chief of Morgan Stanley (e) Chief of World Bank
130. What is the present reverse REPO rate?
(a) 7.5% (b) 8.5% (c) 8% (d) 6.5% (e) None of these
131. General Assembly elections were held in which of the following North East states in January 2012?
(a) Assam (b) Meghalaya (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Manipur (e) Tripura
132. What is the full form of the term FDI?
(a) Foreign Direct Investment (b) Foreign Diverse Investment (c) Fixed Deposit Investment (d) Floating Deposit Investment (e) Financial Derivatives in India
133. The erstwhile UTI Bank is presently known as
(a) ING Vysya Bank (b) Yes Bank (c) Indusind Bank (d) Axis Bank (e) IDBI Bank
134. Which of the following telecom giants recently won its case against the Income Tax Department?
(a) BhartiAirtel (b) Vodafone (c) Idea Cellular (d) Reliance Communications (e) Tata Telecom
135. Which of the following countries recently attained the status of world’s sixth largest economy?
(a) Russia (b) Japan (c) China (d) India (e) Brazil
136. Which of the following countries decided to withdraw from Kyoto Protocol?
(a) Canada (b) Russia (c) India (d) USA (e) China
137. Which of the following is NOT a Banking or Finance Company?
(a) Barclay (b) Lufthansa (c) BNP Paribas (d) American Express (e) HSBC
138. India and Russia were having some differences over which of the following nuclear power plants?
(a) Kaiga (b) Kudankulam (c) Rawatbhata (d) Narora (e) None of these
139. Excise duty is a tax levied on which of the following?
(a) Production of goods (b) Purchase of goods (c) Export of goods (d) Sale of goods (e) Movement of goods beyond municipal limits
140. “India and Pakistan started fresh talks on conventional CBM” was the news in all major newspapers. What does the letter ‘M’ denote in the term ‘CBM’ as used above?
(a) Money (b) Mechanism (c) Modalities (d) Measures (e) Memorial
141. Which of the following is the unit of electrical current?
(a) Bar (b) Calorie (c) Ampere (d) Decibel (e) Angstrom
142. Global Meet on Emerging Economies was organised in December 2011 in
(a) New Delhi (b) Dhaka (c) Islamabad (d) Kathmandu (e) Capetown
143. Which of the following awards is given to the coaches of sport persons?
(a) KalidasSamman (b) Dronacharya Award (c) Arjuna Award (d) Dada SahebPhalke Award (e)SaraswatiSamman
144. Which of the following countries recently agreed to sell Uranium to India?
(a) Australia (b) USA (c) Iran (d) Germany (e) Bangladesh
145. Which of the following schemes launched by the Government of India is aimed at developing rural Infrastructure?
(a) MNREGA (b) ASHA (c) Bharat Nirman (d) Operation Flood (e) Operation Black board
146. Who among the following is a famous Sports person?
(a) Dhanush (b) SainaNehwal (c) Charles Correa (c) Ajit Singh (e) Kim Jong-Un
147. Speed of a ship is expressed in
(a) Kilometre (b) Horsepower (c) Ohm (d) Knot (e) Coulomb
148. USA and some other European countries recently imposed fresh sanctions on which of the following countries as they are not in favour of its nuclear advancement?
(a) Iraq (b) Pakistan (c) India (d) Iran (e) Kuwait
149. Who among the following has written the book Dr. Zhivago?
(a) Pearl S Buck (b) HG Wells (c) Saul Bellow (d) Emile Zola (e) Boris Pasternak
150. Yoshihiko Noda was on a visit to India recently. He is the present Prime Minister of
(a) Myanmar (b) South Korea (c) North Korea (d) Japan (e) None of these

Page – IV: English Language

Directions (Q. 151-160): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Rural healthcare in India is (151) by a huge gap between supply and demand. Currently, rural healthcare needs are (152) either by limited government facilities and private nursing homes, which have not been able to keep pace with increasing demand, (153) by a number of quacks who practice medicine in rural areas. The quality of infrastructure is usually poor and people (154) up having to go to nearby large cities if they need high-quality care. Rural India deserves better, since the ability to pay has gone up over the last few years, driven by growth in income and penetration of government healthcare programmes. Increasing demand, (155) with the failure of existing infrastructure to scale, has resulted in rural healthcare (156) a large under-served market. Absence of a viable business model (157) conversion of the huge rural expenditure on health into an economic activity that generates incomes and (158) the poor. It is this (159) that entrepreneurs are looking to (160).

151. (a) Performed (b) displayed (c) furthered (d) characterised (e) made
152. (a) stopped (b) met (c) elevated (d) discussed (e) set
153. (a) also (b) nor (c) but (d) or (e) and
154. (a) end (b) give (c) fed (d) start (e) set
155. (a) couple (b) combined (c) mentioning (d) engaged (e) resulting
156. (a) become (b) happening (c) being (d) exists (e) is
157. (a) to (b) makes (c) so (d) ceasing (e) prevents
158. (a) generates (b) supplies (c) lists (d) turns (e) serves
159. (a) gap (b) truth (c) progress (d) catastrophes (e) divides
160. (a) fills (b) access (c) plug (d) form (e) distance

Directions (Q. 161-165): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.

161. A freezing morning accompanied by a dense cover of fog set the toning for the coming weekend.

(a) keeping tone                   (b) started the toning                     (c) kept the tone

(d) set the tone                     (e) No correction required

162. The jail is in the news again with the finding of a pistol and some bullets?

(a) to finding                        (b) with find                                     (c) finding

(d) on found                         (e) No correction required

163. The space-crunched city throws up several stories of struggle that schools have had put-up with to win playgrounds for their students?

(a) have had to put up to                (b) had put up on              (c) have had to put up with

(d) had to put up to                         (e) No correction required

164. Emotions ran high as both families were taken to the police station last night?

(a) Emotions went higher              (b) Emotion became high            (c) Emotionally high

(d) Emotions ran high                    (e) No Correction required

165. Work at all the court complexes was paralysed as lawyers went on a day-long strike as a mark of protest?

(a) for a one day strike                    (b) for a strike              (c) on a day’s long strike

(d) on a day-long striking               (e) No correction required

Directions (Q. 166-170): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) The policy makers in most of the developing economies recognise this importance and have been implementing a host of programmes and measures to achieve rural developments objectives.

(B) While some of these countries have achieved impressive results from those programmes and measures, others have failed to make a significant dent in the problem of persistent rural underdevelopment.

(C) The socio-economic disparties between rural and urban areas are windening and creating tremendous presssure on the social and economic fabric of many such developing economics

(D) These factors, among many others, tend to highlight the importance of rural development.

(E) Although millions of rural people have escaped poverty as a result of rural development in many Asian Countries, a large majority of rural people continue to suffer from persistent poverty.

166. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A                  (b) B            (c) C             (d) D            (e) E

167. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A                 (b) B            (c) C             (d) D            (e) E

168. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C                 (b) B            (c) A             (d) D            (e) E

169. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A                 (b) B            (c) C             (d) D            (e) E

170. Which of the following should SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D                  (b) E             (c) C             (d) B            (e) A

Directions (Q. 171-175): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

171. Forest department officials said that when the elephants were made to — from their trucks, they went straight to the spot where they had been — during the camp.

(a) jump, killed        (b) alight, tied          (c) enter, hurt

(d) step, played        (e) exit, enjoyed

172. Excise officials seized pouches of whisky — a bus travelling — Maharashtra.

(a) from, to                               (b) in, for                        (c) for, towards

(d) inside, on                           (e) through, till

173. Organisations —- for the victims — the inhuman and unjust attitude of the government.

(a) fighting, applauded         (b) lobbying, supported               (c) working, condemned

(d) stand, opposed                 (e) trying, spoke

174. A collision between two buses — six people dead, — the driver of one of the buses.

(a) made, also                         (b) left, including                          (c) caused, combined

(d) resulted, except                (e) got, surpassing

175. The court — revenue authorities and PCB officials to — teams and visit pharma units

(a) directed, form                   (b) announced, arrange              (c) commanded, display

(d) ruled, make                       (e) told, carve

Directions (176-190): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is 5. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

176. (a) The transit system’s underground/ (b) tunnels and stations will/ (c) be constructed/ (d) next heritage structures./ (e) No error

177. (a) Residents have been planting/ (b) the ornamental trees outside/ (c) their homes and in lawns to/ (d) add beauty and give their place a grand look./ (e) No error

178. (a) A diamond jeweller’s peon/ (b) tipped off a gang/ (c) about the gold (d) in his employer’s vault./ (e) No error

179. (a) He said that the performance of the Indian team / (b) was satisfactory at the international meet / (c) and that they learnt a lot from / (d) watching top seeded players through action at the grand slam / (e) No error

180. (a) Watching the Exponential / (b) talent of world tennis / (c) Was the best things / (d) to happen to him./ (e) No error
181. (a) The meeting took place a day after / (b) the agency held a meeting with project contractors / (c) to evaluate steps that being taken to / (d) ensure that the buildings were not affected. / (e) No error

182. (a) The director explained / (b) the theme and / (c) the concept of / (d) the international folk festival./ (e) No error

183. (a) The fight among / (b) rival candidates between the medium / (c) of catchy slogans / (d) has started. / (e) No error

184. (a) Acting on a tip-off / (b) the anti-robbery squadled / (c) by inspectors laid / (d) a trap for the robbers / (e) No error

185. (a) The process of / (b) revising figures of damage/ (c) to get additional compensation / (d) has began./ (e) No error

186. (a) Farmers who grow the crop/ (b) are the worse hit, as the investment/ (c) they make on a crop is / (d) huge as compared to the profit./(e) No error

187. (a) The government is made it / (b) mandatory for pharmacies to send / (c) copies of medical bills along with / (d) prescriptions of drugs and details of patients./ (e) No error.

188. (a) While these schools have / (b) a strong traditional hold, the reason for / (c) forming a consortium in India is to encourage / (d) cultural diversity for their institutes./ (e) No error.

189. (a) The Government soon will make/ (b) it mandatory for all private hospitals / (c) to notify infectious cases / (d) as soon as they are detected./ (e) No error.

190. (a) School children, who so far / (b) have had rationed access to / (c) the few playgrounds on the city must be / (d) happy by the recent move./ (e) No error.

Directions (Q. 191-200): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A large number of branches’ of banks have been set up in the village. The main purpose of setting up these banks is to develop the habit of saving among the villagers and also to give loans to farmers for boosting production in one way or the other. So far banks had been concentrated in the bigger cities and Indian villagers had no faith in them. The new banks also intend to re-channel bank credit- from the big industries to the small sectors. With the intention of promoting rural banking, regional rural banks were established. These aligned the local field with the rural problems. These banks are not to replace the other credit-giving bodies but to supplement them.

The Steering Committee of the Regional Rural Banks considered some structural changes. First of all they gave thought to the staffing spectrum, then to effective coordination among banks- rural cooperatives and commercial, and the possibility of bringing credit within the access of weaker sections. They wanted to recruit staff for the rural banks at lower salaries. But this type of discrimination would have been unfruitful. So it was given up.

A problem with regard to the rural banks is the creditworthiness of the poor. The Indian farmers are so poor that they cannot pay back their loans. The rural Indian surveys make it quite clear that practically rural farmers have no creditworthiness. Their socio-economic mobility is almost zero. That is why banks fear that their credit will never be paid back.

Another difficulty for the rural banks is that loans cannot be processed so easily. Processing loans also entails heavy expenditure. This was also going to affect their financial position. Still the establishment of the rural banks was decided because the social advantages were more important than the commercial consideration.

Rural banks definitely encourage savings. No doubt the villagers do not have to pay income tax and they get many other concessions, yet their savings is not significant. Despite all the hurdles, the rural banking system, will boost up the economy of villages, and thereby the economy of the country.

191. Which of the following is/are the purpose/s of setting up banks in rural areas?

(A) Replacing other credit-giving bodies

(B) Giving loans to farmers

(C) Increasing the amount of savings of villagers.

(a) Only B      (b) Only A and B       (c) Only B and C       (d) Only A      (e) All A, B and C

192. The structural changes made by the Steering Committee were in respect of

(a) staffing, co-coordinating and providing access to weaker sections.

(b) building smaller buildings to house the banks

(c) investing very little in terms of infrastructure required to start a bank

(d) discriminating between urban bank staff and rural bank staff

(e) None of these

193. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

(a) Regional Rural Banks                               (b) The Rural Consumer      (c) Microfinance In Rural India

(d) Characteristics Of Indian Villages         (e) Banking Concepts In India

194. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

(a) Processing of loans by rural banks is difficult

(b) Staff of the rural banks is paid a lower salary as compared to urban banks.

(c) Rural banks may not make as much profit as their urban counterparts

(d) Processing of loans by banks is not cheap

(e) Rural farmers are, many a time, unable to pay back the loans they avail.

195. Which of the following is one of the benefits of living in the Village, as mentioned in the passage?

(a) People living in the villages enjoy a higher income than their urban counterparts

(b) People living in villages do not have to pay income tax and they also get other concessions

(c) People living in villages have a better quality of life

(d) Villages are self-sufficient; hence they do not need outside help for any activity.

(e) People living in villages are rarely in need of a loan.

Directions (Q.196-198): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

196. CONCENTRATED

(a) clustered                 (b) rigorous      (c) attentive             (d) diluted            (e) intense

197. ACCESS

(a) admittance             (b) reach           (c) admission           (d) entry               (e) permission

198. ENTAILS

(a) recommends         (b) lasts              (c) lists                      (d) involves           (e) filters

Directions (Q.199-200): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

199. BOOSTING

(a) reducing             (b) managing             (c) overwhelming      (d) smoothening       (e) heightening

200. SIGNIFICANT

(a) forgettable         (b) untrustworthy     (c) reliable                  (d) irregular               (e) little

Answer Key:

1.(a) 2.(e) 3.(d) 4.(e) 5.(b) 6.(e) 7.(e) 8.(b)
9.(c) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(e) 16.(d)
17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(b) 20.(a) 21.(b) 22.(d) 23.(e) 24.(c)
25.(d) 26.(a) 27.(d) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(d) 31.(b) 32.(b)
33.(e) 34.(b) 35.(c) 36.(b) 37.(a) 38.(e) 39.(d) 40.(a)
41.(d) 42.(a) 43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(e) 46.(b) 47.(a) 48.(c)
49.(a) 50.(d) 51.(d) 52.(d) 53.(a) 54.(a) 55.(c) 56.(c)
57.(e) 58.(e) 59.(b) 60.(b) 61.(c) 62.(b) 63.(d) 64.(e)
65.(c) 66.(b) 67.(a) 68.(b) 69.(e) 70.(e) 71.(a) 72.(c)
73.(d) 74.(b) 75.(a) 76.(d) 77.(c) 78.(d) 79.(a) 80.(a)
81.(c) 82.(d) 83.(d) 84.(e) 85.(e) 86.(e) 87.(b) 88.(e)
89.(e) 90.(c) 91.(b) 92.(e) 93.(b) 94.(c) 95.(a) 96.(b)
97.(a) 98.(b) 99.(e) 100.(d) 101.(c) 102.(b) 103.(d) 104.(a)
105.(c) 106.(e) 107.(e) 108.(b) 109.(c) 110.(e) 111.(e) 112.(e)
113.(e) 114.(a) 115.(b) 116.(b) 117.(a) 118.(d) 119.(c) 120.(d)
121.(c) 122.(e) 123.(e) 124.(c) 125.(d) 126.(c) 127.(c) 128.(a)
129.(b) 130.(e) 131.(d) 132.(a) 133.(d) 134.(b) 135.(e) 136.(a)
137.(b) 138.(b) 139.(a) 140.(d) 141.(c) 142.(a) 143.(b) 144.(a)
145.(c) 146.(b) 147.(d) 148.(d) 149.(e) 150.(d) 151.(d) 152.(b)
153.(d) 154.(a) 155.(b) 156.(c) 157.(e) 158.(e) 159.(a) 160.(c)
161.(d) 162.(e) 163.(d) 164.(d) 165.(e) 166.(d) 167.(b) 168.(c)
169.(e) 170.(c) 171.(b) 172.(a) 173.(c) 174.(b) 175.(a) 176.(d)
177.(b) 178.(e) 179.(d) 180.(c) 181.(c) 182.(e) 183.(b) 184.(e)
185.(d) 186.(b) 187.(a) 188.(d) 189.(a) 190.(c) 191.(c) 192.(a)
193.(a) 194.(b) 195.(b) 196.(a) 197.(b) 198.(d) 199.(a) 200.(e)

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