A candidate must be a citizen of India in order to apply for the post of clerical cadre in State Bank of India.

Age Limit:

A candidate should be between 20 – 28 years

Age Relaxation:
SC / ST  05 Years
Other Backward Classes (OBC)  03 Years
PWD (Gen)  10 Years
PWD (SC /ST)  15 Years
PWD (OBC)  13 Years
Persons domiciled in Kashmir Division of Jammu & Kashmir State during the period from 01 January 1980 to 31 December 1989  5 years
Ex-Servicemen/Disabled Ex-Servicemen  Actual period of service rendered in defence services +    3 years
Widows, Divorced women and women  9 year

Cumulative age relaxation will not be available either under above items or in combination with any other item.

Educational Qualification:

A Degree (Graduation level) from a recognised university, or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central/State Government. Those who are in the final year of Graduation/Semester may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview, they will have to produce proof of having passed the Graduation Examination on or before the recruitment notification date.

Note: (a) The date of passing the eligibility examination will be the date appearing on the mark sheet/provisional certificate or the date on which the result was posted on the web site of the university / institution. Candidate having integrated dual degree (IDD) certificate should ensure that the date of passing the IDD is on or before the recruitment notification date.

(b) Matriculate Ex-servicemen, who have obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force, after having completed not less than 15 years of service in Armed Forces of the Union are also eligible for the post. Such certificates should be dated on or before the recruitment notification date.

(c) Should be able to write and speak English.

(d) Knowledge of local language will be an added qualification

Candidates seeking age relaxation are required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of interview, if qualifying .No change in the category of any candidate is possible after registration of online application. No correspondence/email/ phone will be entertained in this regard.


SBI Clerical selection procedure consists of two phases – Online Exam & Interview 

Phase 1: Online Examination
Examination Pattern
Subjects Questions Max Marks Duration of the Examination
General Awareness 40 40 Composite time of 135 minutes or 2 hours 15 minutes
General English 40 40
Quantitative Aptitude 40 40
Reasoning Ability 40 40
Marketing/Computer 40 40

There will be negative marking (0.25 per wrong answer) hence you have to be very careful while attempting the paper.

Cutoff marks in each of the tests will be decided by the Bank on the basis of the performance of all the competing candidates taken together in each test to a minimum required level.

Candidates are also required to score a minimum percentage marks on aggregate (For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/XS candidates, 5% relaxation available thereon) for being considered for interview. Minimum percentage marks on aggregate will be decided by the bank.


i) Level of Questions: In SBI Clerk Exam difficulty level of the questions is going to be very easy. Most of the questions will be straight forward therefore a well prepared student can solved most of the questions quickly and with high accuracy.

ii) Time Management: General Awareness 15 minutes, General English 20 minutes, Quantitative Aptitude 35 minutes, Reasoning 35 minutes, Marketing/Computer 20 minutes and the remaining 10 minutes for checking and attempting remaining questions.

 Phase 2: Interview

Candidates qualified in the test will be placed according to their marks in descending order in respective categories. Depending upon the number of vacancies only certain number of candidates from amongst those who qualify by ranking high enough in the merit will be called for interview in the ratio of maximum 3 candidates for each vacancy.

Candidates are required to score a minimum percentage marks (to be decided by the bank) in interview to be considered for final selection. Weightage for knowledge of local language will be given in accordance with the Govt. guidelines. Final selection will be made on the basis of candidate’s performance in the test and interview taken together.


Interview call letters will be uploaded on the Bank’s website after declaration of result of online test. Candidates will have to download the same from our website. No hard copy of interview call letter will be sent by post.


Quantitative Aptitude:

Number system, HCF and LCM, Simplifications (15-20 questions), Roots & Averages, Surds & Indices, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Partnership, Chain rule, Time & work, Pipes & Cisterns, Time & Distances, Problems on trains, Boats & streams, Allegation & mixtures, Simple Interest, Compound interest, Stocks & Shares, clocks & algorithms, Mensuration, Volume& surface area, permutations & combinations, heights & distances

Data Interpretation: line graphs, bar graphs, pie charts, Table

 Reasoning Ability:

Verbal reasoning: Alphabet Test, Number Series Test, Odd Man Out,  Analogy, Coding & decoding, Blood relations, Sitting arrangements, Direction test, Series completion, syllogisms, Decision making, Statement and Conclusion and Data Sufficiency

Non verbal reasoning: Analogy, Series completion, Classification, completing incomplete patterns

 General English:

Vocabulary, synonyms & Antonyms, Reading Comprehension of basic level, Idioms & Phrases, Spotting Errors, Sentence completion, Sentence Improvement, Fill in the blanks, Cloze Test, Sentence Correction, Substitution, Theme detection

 General Awareness:

National Events ,International Events, history, geography, culture, Indian constitutions, Persons, Places, Awards, Sports, Books and Authors, Important Dates, Science and Technology, Sports, Economy, banking and finance.

 Marketing Aptitude:

Marketing Basics, Terminology and Abbreviations, Marketing Concept, Marketing Types, Marketing Mix, Concept of Buying & Selling, SWOT Analysis, CRM, Market Research, Market Information, Market Segmentation, Branding, Marketing Research.

 Computer Awareness:

Basic Computer Terminology, Abbreviations, Hard ware and Software basics, Operating Systems, Shortcut Keys, Internet, Information Security, MS Office, MS Word, MS Excel, MS Power Point, MS access, internet & networks, Basic security concepts, Latest technologies

 SBI Clerk Blue Print
Subjects Year / Topics 2011 8 Nov 2012 15 Nov 2012 22 Nov 2012 16 Nov 2012 23 Nov 2013 30 Nov 2013 2014
Quantitative Aptitude Percentage and of 3 4 5 5 5 5 5 3
Addition, subtraction 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Power 2 1 1
Division 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Multiplication 1 2 1 1 1
Multi Division 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 1
Square, Cube and Roots 3 1 2 1 1 8
Number Series 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
Number System 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 8
Average 1 1 1 1 2 3 1
Simple and compound Interest 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1
Ratio & Proportion 1 2 2 1 1 2 2
Percentage 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 4
Fraction 3 3 2 2 4 4 1
Time and Work 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Trains 1 1 1 1 1 1 3
Profit and Loss 1 2 1 2 1 1 1
Chain Rule 1 1 1 1 1 1
Partnership 2 1 1 1
Age 1 1 1 1 2
DI Case Studies 5
DI (Table) 5 5 5 5 5 5 5  
Data Interpretation (Bar) 5
Reasoning Analogy 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Number Ranking 1 2 1 2 1 1
Alphabet Test 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Blood Relation 2 1
Coding-Decoding 7 2 2 2 3 8 7 7
Seating Arrangement 5 6 7 6 6 5 5  
Letter Series 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 1
Analytical Reasoning 6
Mathematical Operations 5 7 7 7 6 5 5  
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5 6 6 6 6 5 4  
Syllogism 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 10
Directions Test 1
Data Sufficiency 6
Non-Verbal Series 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
English Comprehension 13 10 10 10 10 10 10 10
Synonyms 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Antonyms 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Spotting Errors 10 5 15
Idiom and Phrase 5 5 5 5 5 5 5  
Spelling Correction 5 5 5 5 5 5  
Sentence Completion 5
Substitutions 5
Sentence Rearrangement 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10 10 10 10 10  
General Knowledge Banking 9 10 12 14 10 10 8 17
Books and Authors 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 3
Constitutions of India 6 8 4 5 5 7 8 5
History 4 2 2 2 2 2
Marketing 1 2 1 1
Indian Economy 4 5 5 3 6 4 6 4
Famous Places 7 4 1 1 3
Geography 1 1 2
Sports 3 2 3 4 4 5 3
Famous Personalities 1 2 4
Awards 1 2 3 4 4 5 3  
Research stations and Institutions in India 1
Miscellaneous (Space), Projects 3 2 1 1 1 2
General Science 1 1 3 2 2
Agriculture 2 1 2 1 2 2
Abbreviations 1 1
Days to Remember 2 1 1
Inventions 1
Current Affairs – Famous Personality, Famous Place 2 3
Computer Knowledge Database 4 3 2 40
Network 3 1 3 2 4 2
Hardware 6 4 6 6 4 3 6
Software 4 6 2 1 2 3 4
Basics of computer 1 10 9 8 8 6 6
Internet 3 2 1 2 1 1
Marketing Aptitude 19 20 20 21 19 21 21


Part -I (General Awareness)

1. Many times we read in financial newspapers/magazines about systematic Investment Plans (SIPs). SIPs are an investment option also operated in the mode of __

(a) Mutual Funds                      (b) Small Savings Schemes in Post Offices

(c) National Pension Fund     (d) National Saving Certificates                 (e) None of these

2. Which of the following banks has created a network of 15000 branches and still growing?

(a) State Bank of India        (b) ICICI Bank               (c) Punjab National Bank

(d) Axis Bank                        (e) None of these

3. Which of the names is not associated with the operations of the Defence Forces in India?

(a) Sukhoi-30           (b) MIG-29         (c) Tejas           (d) SARAS          (e) Astra

4. The Democratic party of which of the following countries through its manifesto for the general elections has called for a child allowance, higher unemployment benefits, lower road tolls, and a radical shake up of the system that gives civil servants a huge influence over politicians?

(a) USA                     (b) China              (c) France        (d) Japan             (e) India

5. Which of the following was put into orbit by the ISRO for the first time in the microwave brand?

(a) Edusat     (b) TECSAR    (c) PSLV        (d) ANUSAT   (e) RITSAT

6. Who amongst the following has suggested to the banks in India to give details of fund to customers via SMS/E-mails?

(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)                      (b) India Bank Associations (IBA)

(c) Indian Institute of Banking & Finance    (d) Securities & Exchange Board of India

(e) None of these

7. Which of the following new schemes is launched to make India Slum free in next five year’s time?

(a) Rahul Gandhi Slum Re-Development Scheme          (b) Indira Awas Yojana

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru Awas Yojana                                    (d) National Slum Re – Development Scheme

(e) Rajiv Awas Yojana

8. As per the new guidelines, which of the following taxes is/are now abolished?

(A) Wealth Tax

(B) Fringe Benefit Tax

(C) Commodity Transaction Tax

(a) Only A         (b) Only B         (c) Only C         (d) All A, B and C        (e) Only B and C

9. Which of the following in India added a record 16 million new customers in a month’s time recently?

(a) Banking Industry                                     (b) F M Radio Channels        (c) Telecom Industry

(d) Photo fixed voters identity cards         (e) None of these

10. As per the Union Budget 2009-10 a National level Authority is set up for cleaning which of the following rivers?

(a) Chambal             (b) Narmada                (c) Kaveri             (d) Ganga           (e) Godavari

11. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 2009-10 presented by Mr. Pranab Mukherjee?

(A) Allocation for rural jobs under NREGS hiked by 144% to make it Rs 39100 crore for the year

(B) Target for Farm Credit set at Rs. 325000 crores, which is an increase of Rs. 38000 crores

(C) Hike in rates of Income Tax at all the levels/all the slabs by 10%

(a) Only A          (b) Only B           (c) Only A & B             (d) All A, B and C         (e) None of these

12. A new Foreign Bank Sarasin & Co. has launched its operations in India recently. This is a bank based in ______

(a) USA             (b) Switzerland         (c) France        (d) Germany                (e) None of these

13. India has a plan to achieve a target of 200000 MW power generation through which of the following models by the year 2050?

(a) Solar only           (b) Thermal Only      (c) Nuclear only        (d) Hydro only          (e) All of these

14. Which of the following awards was given to Dr. G. Madhavan Nair recently?

(a) Man of the year         (b) Bharat Ratna       (c) Businessman of the year

(d) Best Public servant of the year                    (e) None of these

15. The President of Which of the following countries got an opportunity to interact with an American president after a gap of almost fifty years recently at an international summit?

(a) Cuba               (b) Brazil                  (c) Russia               (d) Austria            (e) Belgium

16. Which of the following two countries are now ready to cooperate with each other and extend their trade ties after a long gap of about six decades?

(a) Japan-USA                  (b) India-Bangladesh           (c) Japan-Sri Lanka

(d) China-Taiwan            (e) None of these

17. Which of the following political parties got an overwhelming majority in the general elections of Africa?

(a) The Democratic Forum of Africa          (b) The Labour Party of Africa

(c) The African National Congress             (d) The National Democratic alliance of Africa

(e) None of these

18. Which of the following facilities is located in Russia’s Angarsk at Siberia and remains in news very often? Russia’s _______

(a) Uranium enrichment plant                       (b) Space Research centre

(c) Spying Agency KGB’s Head quarter       (d) Biggest naval base         (e) None of these

19. Russia decided to boost its military ties with which of its neighboring countries and is planning to have atleast 25 joint manoeuvres and war games in the current year?

(a) India            (b) China          (c) Poland          (d) Slovakia Republic               (e) None of these

20. Which of the following awards is given to Pt. Jasraj recently?

(a) Kalidas Samman           (b) Saraswathi Samman      (c) Padma Bhushan

(d) Bharatratna                   (e) None of these

21. The Leftist Coalition made up of the social Democratic Alliance and the left Green movement got a good victory in the recently held general elections in ______

(a) Nepal           (b) Iceland           (c) Macedonia               (d) Mexico             (e) North Korea

22. Yongbyon Nuclear complex is the nuclear facility of which of the following nations and was in news recently?

(a) Bangladesh         (b) Nepal       (c) North Korea        (d) South Korea      (e) None of these

23. Which of the following is Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) at present?

(a) 10%            (b) 15%             (c) 20%            (d) 24%             (e) 33%

24. Which of the following is most preferred cross border trade point between India and Pakistan as the maximum transaction takes place from there?

(a) Bikaner    (b) Ganga Nagar      (c) Wagah     (d) Mujaffarabad      (e) None of these

25. Which of the following is not amongst the top five purchaser of energy sold by other states in India?

(a) Andhra Pradesh   (b) West Bengal       (c) Karnataka          (d) Maharashtra

(e) Tamil Nadu

26. China has decided to boost up its trade ties with which of the following poor Himalayan countries by extending its aid by 50%?

(a) Bangladesh         (b) Nepal       (c) Myanmar (d) Pakistan   (e) Afghanistan

27. How much amount Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) got from Govt. of India as a relief package recently?

(a) Rs. 5000 crores                       (b) Rs. 6000 crores                     (c) Rs. 8000 crores

(d) Rs. 9000 crores                      (e) Rs. 12000 crores

28. Which of the following is a chemical fertilizer?

(a) Zinc oxide                 (b) Silver chloride                (c) Neptha                 (d) Calcium carbonate

(e) Murate of Potash (MOP)

29. Which of the following is the book written by Vikram Seth?

(a) The sea             (b) Magic Seeds              (c) My Life            (d) Two Lives                 (e) Namesake

30. Constitutional Amendment 73 & 74 are associated with _______

(a) Creation of the post of Ombudsman in banks           (b) Right to Information act

(c) Panchayat Raj Institutions                      (d) Pay and perks to the president of India

(e) None of these

31. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with the game of

(a) Lawn Tennis        (b) Cricket     (c) Chess       (d) Golf         (e) Hockey

32. The Govt. of India recently announced that the Tax collection during the year was short by

(a) Rs. 10000 crores           (b) Rs. 20000 crores                     (c) Rs. 30000 crores

(d) Rs. 35000 crores          (e) Rs. 40000 crores

33. The short term loans given to the farmers are the loans given normally for a period of

(a) three months      (b) six months         (c) nine months

(d) one year               (e) fifteen months

34. The famous “123 Agreement” is closely associated with ________

(a) subsidy to agricultural products          (b) import of pharma products

(c) purchase of aircrafts from France       (d) Nuclear Energy              (e) None of these

35. Which of the following is the biggest programme launched for school children and has been very successful?

(a) Antyodaya Yojana         (b) Food for work     (c) Mid Day Meal      (d) ASHA

(e) None of these

36. ‘Davis Cup’ is associated with the game of

(a) Cricket     (b) Hockey     (c) Laws Tennis        (d) Football    (e) None of these

37. Which of the following state govts. Launched Jawahar Knowledge Centres to train rural youth?

(a) Delhi        (b) Karnataka          (c) Andhra Pradesh             (d) Tamil Nadu           (e) None of these

38. India started its five year planning with effect from the year

(a) 1955        (b) 1951        (c) 1960        (d) 1965        (e) 1948

39. The Head of the Reserve Bank of India is designated as the _____

(a) Chief Executive Officer             (b) Managing Director         (c) Chief Banking Officer

(d) Dy. Governor                              (e) None of these

40. Which of the following is normally grown in hilly areas on mountain slope as it is not a crop of plains?

(a) Tea         (b) Wheat      (c) Banana     (d) Roses      (e) All of these

Part II-(General English)

Directions (Q. 41-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

             Long ago there was a poor Brahmin named Krishnan. He could not find enough work to do. Sometimes, he and his family had to go without food. At last Krishnan decided to leave his village in search of work. Early next morning, he left the house. He walked the whole day until he came to a thick jungle. He was tired, thirsty and hungry. While looking around for water to drink, he found a well. He went to the well and looked in. There he saw a jaguar, a monkey, a snake and a man. They had all fallen into the well. “O, noble Brahmin,” the jaguar called out to him, “Please help me out, so that I can go back to my family”. “But you are a jaguar,” and Krishnan, “How do I know you will not kill me?” “Don’t be afraid of me, I promise I will not do you any harm,” replied the jaguar. Krishnan reached into the well and pulled out the jaguar. The jaguar thanked him and said, “I’m Shersingh. I live in a cave in the mountains. I shall be most delighted if I can repay my debt to you someday.” Krishnan then heard the monkey calling out to him from the well. The Brahmin at once pulled the monkey out. The monkey thanked the Brahmin, “If you are over in need of food, just drop in at my place below that big mountain. Bali is my name, “Now the snake called out to him for help. “Help you!” exclaimed Krishnan. “You are a snake. What if you bite me?” “I shall never bite you,” said the snake. So Krishnan pulled the snake out of the well. The snake said “Remember, if you are ever in any difficulty, just call out my anme – Naagesh, wherever you are, I shall find you.”The jaguar, the monkey and the snake took leave of the Brahmin. But before they left, they spoke to him about the man in the well. “Please do not help him,” said Shersingh. “If you do,” said Naagesh, “you will be in trouble yourself.” As soon as they left, the man in the well began to call out for help. Krishnan felt sorry for the man and pulled him out of the well. “Thank you for your kindness,” said the man. “I am Seth Ghanshyamdas. I am a goldsmith. If you ever need my help, don’t hesitate to visit my humble house near the city.” The goldsmith then left for home.

After some time, the Brahmin continued his journey. But he could not find any work. He then remembered Shersingh Bali, Naagesh and Seth Ghanshyamdas. He thought it was time to seek their help.

He first went to Bali. The monkey was overjoyed to see him. He gave him a warm welcome and offered him some really delicious fruits. The Brahmin told him how grateful he was. Now Krishnan went to see Shersingh, the jaguar. As soon as Shersingh saw Krishnan coming, he ran out to welcome him he gave Krishnan a beautiful gold necklace and other precious jewellery. Krishnan thanked Shersingh for the jewellery and parted. His journey had at last brought him luck, he thought. He would be able to sell the ornaments? He then remembered Seth Ghanshyamdas. He went to him. The goldsmith was glad to see Krishnan. “Here are some ornaments. Please give me a good price for them.” Seth Ghanshyamdas took the jewellery and examined it carefully. ”I shall certainly help you,” he said. “But let me show them to another goldsmith. Please wait here, I will be right back.” He then went with the ornaments. Seth at once rushed to the Palace of the king.

He said, “A man brought these ornaments to me and asked me to sell them. But they are the ornaments I made for the Prince who is missing.” “Who is this man? Where is he?” thundered the King. “This rogue must have murdered my little Prince and robbed his jewels!” “He is a Brahmin named Krishnan, Your Majesty,” replied the goldsmith, “and he is there, in my house,” The king called for his most dreaded soldiers. “Arrest the Brahmin who is in the goldsmith’s house and throw him into the darkest dungeons of the kingdom!” roared the King. The King’s guard stormed into the goldsmith’s house and seized Krishnan. Krishnan was thrown into a dark dungeon to await his execution. He then remembered the words of Naagesh, the snake. So he called out to him. Suddenly, almost like magic, Naagesh slithered his way down a narrow window into the dingy cell. “O, Lord!” hissed Naagesh, “how did you manage to get yourself arrested? Krishnan cried and then told the snake what had happened. “I have a plan.” hissed Naagesh. “I shall creep into the Queen’s room and bit her,” said Naagesh, “She will faint.

No matter what they do, she will remain asleep. The poison will remain in her body until you place your hand on her forehead,” explained Naagesh. He then left Krishnan and went to the palace. He crept into the Queen’s room and bit her. The Queen fainted. The sad news that the Queen had been bitten by a snake spread all over the Kingdom. Vaidyas came from far and near, but their medicines had no effect. No one could revive the Queen. Finally, the King declared that anyone who could cure the Queen would be handsomely rewarded. Many people went to the palace but all of them failed. “I can cure the Queen,” Krishnan told the guards. At once they took him to the palace and the King took him to the Queen. Krishnan sat beside the Queen and placed his hand on her forehead. Soon, she opened her eyes and sat up.

The King was overjoyed and shed tears of happiness. He embraced Krishnan and thanked him. “Your majesty”, said Krishnan “I was sent to prison for a crime I did not commit”. Krishnan told the king the whole story. The King was fuming with rage when he heard what the goldsmith had done. He at once had the goldsmith arrested.

The King then presented Krishnan with a large house and a thousand pieces of gold. Krishnan with a large house and a thousand pieces of gold. Krishnan sent for his family and they all lived happily ever after.

41. Why was Krishnan afraid to save Naagesh from the well?

(a) As Naagesh had threatened him with dire consequences

(b) As he thought Naagesh would eat him

(c) As he thought Naagesh would bite him once he was out of the well

(d) As he thought that Naagesh would capture him as soon as he got out of the well

(e) None of these

42. What did the king do to save the Queen after even the Vaidyas failed to revive her?

(a) He punished the snake for having harmed the Queen

(b) He announced a reward to anyone who could cure the Queen

(c) He immediately called for Krishnan to cure the Queen

(d) He asked his guards to immediately look for someone who could cure the Queen

(e) None of these

43. What did Seth Ghanshyamdas tell the King about Krishnan?

(a) That Krishnan had brought fake ornaments for selling

(b) That Krishnan was an honest Brahmin who had left his village

(c) That Krishnan had killed the Prince

(d) That Krishnan had brought those ornaments for selling which had been made for the missing Prince

(e) None of these

44. What did the King do on learning the truth about Krishnan and Seth Ghanshyamdas?

(a) He put Krishnan back in the dungeon as he still held Krishnan responsible for the Prince’s death

(b) He called for Krishnan’s wife and family

(c) He presented gold to Krishnan and also a house to live in

(d) He congratulated the snake on his efforts to save Krishnan

(e) None of these

45. What plan did Nageesh have to save Krishnan from the dungeon?

(a) That he would sneak Krishnan out of the dungeon without anyone noticing

(b) That he would bite the King and make him unconscious

(c) That he would bite Krishnan and make everyone believe that he was dead

(d) That he would enter the Queen’s chamber and scare her

(e) None of these

46. What did Bali do after seeing Krishnan at his house?

(A) He gave Krishnan directions to Shersingh’s house

(B) He welcomed Krishnan to his house

(C) He offered tasty fruits to Krishnan

(a) Only (A)          (b) Only (b)           (c) Only (c)          (d) Only (b) and (c)           (e) Only (A) and (C)

47. Why did the jaguar, the monkey and the snake tell Krishnan not to save the man in the well?

(a) As the man in the well was a goldsmith

(b) As the man in the well had cheated the snake, the monkey and the jaguar

(c) As the man in the well was a thief

(d) As the snake, the monkey and the jaguar hated the man as they had known him for a very long time

(e) None of these

48. Why did Krishnan go to meet Seth Ghanshyamdas?

(a) As he thought that Seth Ghanshyamdas could help him in selling the ornaments gifted to him by Shersingh

(b) As he knew that Seth Ghanshyamdas had contact with the King which could prove to be beneficial

(c) As Seth Ghanshyamdas had requested Krishnan to sell ornaments only to him

(d) As Krishnan was extremely fond of Seth Ghanshyamdas

(e) None of these

49. Why did Krishnan decide to leave his village?

(a) As he could not find much work in his own village and his family had to starve sometimes because of it

(b) As his family had requested him to do so

(c) As his village people had asked him to leave their village and look for work somewhere else

(d) As he wanted to search for food in a village different from his own

(e) None of these

50. What can possibly be the moral of the story?

(a) Trust oneself before trusting others     (b) A good deed never goes unrewarded

(c) You cannot change people but you can change yourself        (d) Try and try until you succeed

(e) One must be the change one wishes to see in this world

Directions (Q. 51-53): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.


(a) elegant        (b) Polite           (c) Modest        (d) Real            (e) Vast

52. SEEK

(a) hunt for       (b) watch for    (c) mention      (d) ask for        (e) force

53. GO

(a) report          (b) live                 (c) send           (d) leave          (e) depart

Directions (Q. 54-55): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of works printed in bold as used in the passage.


(a) meagerly             (b) tidily                   (c) ugly         (d) raggedly              (e) plenty


(a) remanded          (b) presented           (c) rested      (d) carried on          (e) stopped

 Directions (Q. 56-60): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (e) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) On touring the whole world and finding no couple who was perfectly happy, the young couple understood that it is very difficult to find perfect happiness anywhere in the world

(B) There was a young couple who led a very happy life together

(C) One day, they heard that a wise old man had come to town; he could solve all kinds of problems and guide people

(D) The wise old man told them; “Travel around the world and seek a man and a women who are perfectly happy as a couple”

(E) So the couple decided to visit the wise old man and tell him their worry

(F) The only thing that they worried about was, whether their happiness would last forever or would they too have to face problems

56. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after arrangement?

(a) A         (b) B          (c) D       (d) E       (e) F

57. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A        (b) B          (c) C         (d) D      (e) E

58. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after arrangement?

(a) B        (b) C          (c) D         (d) E      (e) F

59. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A       (b) B           (c) C         (d) D       (e) F

60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after arrangement?

(a) A       (b) B           (c) C       (d) D         (e) E

 Directions (Q. 61-65): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?

If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.

61. He told his employer of his plans to leave the business to lead a more leisure life

(a) more leisurely life              (b) many leisurely life                      (c) many leisured life

(d) more leisurely live             (e) No correction required

62. All she could think about was the beautiful dress and how she could earn enough money to buy it

(a) All she can think                 (b) All she could thought            (c) All she can thought

(d) All she can thinking          (e) No correction required

63. A young and successful executive was travelling down a neighbourhood street, going a bit to fast in his new car

(a) a bit too fastly    (b) a bit as fast        (c) a bit to fastly      (d) a bit too fast     (e) No correction required

64. Padma could convince anyone with her talks as she had the gift of the gabbing

(a) gifting of the gabbing     (b) gift of the gap     (c) gifting of the gap

(d) gift off the gap                  (e) No correction required

65. For countries undergoing a recession, large cuts in public spending seem to be the ordering of the day

(a) be the ordering of days              (b) being the order of the day        (c) be the order of the day

(d) being the ordering of days        (e) No correction required

Directions (Q. 66-70): In each questions below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These numbered as (1), (2),        (c) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer, if all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark            (e) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

66. When the young artist returned (a) / to his village, his family held a festive (b) / dinner on it’s lawn to celebrate his triumphant  (c) / homecoming. (d) / All correct (e)

67. She trusted Mira with all her heart (a) / and thus handled  (b) / over her life’s (c) / savings to her instantly. (d) / All correct (e)

68. It is difficult (a) / to see the picture  (b) / when you are inside  (c) / the frame. (d) / All correct (e)

69. Had she not suppressed (a) / all the details of her company’s project, (b) / her Company would have bagged (c) / the contract.   (d) / All correct (e)

70. The whole time she walked (a) / with her child in her arms the only thing      (b) / that worried    (c) / her was her son’s feature. (d) / All correct (e)

Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day a father of a very wealthy family (71) his son on a trip to the country with the purpose of (72) his son how the poor people live so he could be thankful for his wealth. They spent a (73) of days and nights on the far of what would be considered a (74) poor family. On their (75) from their trip, the father asked his son, “How was the trip? “It was great, Dad.” “Did you see how poor people can be?” the father asked. “Oh yeah” said the son. “So what did you (76) from the trip?” asked the father. The son answered, “I saw that we have one dog and they had four. We have a pool that (77) to the middle of our garden and they have a creek that has no end.” “We have imported lanterns in our garden and they have the stars at night.” “Our patio reaches to the front yard and they have the (78) horizon.” “We have a small piece of land to live on and they have fields that go beyond our sight.” “We have (79) who serve us, but they serve others.” “We buy our food, but they grow theirs.” “We have walls around our (80) to protect us; they have friends to protect them.” With this the boy’s father was speechless. Then his son added “Thanks dad for showing me how poor we are.”

71. (a) mould (b) showed (c) took (d) beat (e) drag
72. (a) trusting (b) showing (c) presenting (d) requesting (e) tell
73. (a) few (b) many (c) two (d) couple (e) much
74. (a) very (b) astutely (c) major (d) some (e) sorrow
75. (a) return (b) walking (c) lane (d) journey (e) leave
76. (a) believe (b) learn (c) reveal (d) think (e) saw
77. (a) leak (b) watery (c) stands (d) reaches (e) swims
78. (a) last (b) lucky (c) more (d) scene (e) whole
79. (a) relatives (b) man (c) servants (d) mother (e) computers
80. (a) pillars (b) country (c) minds (d) selves (e) property

Test – III (Quantitative Aptitude)

Directions (Q. 81-95):What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. of 504 + of 640 = ?

(a) 520            (b) 480            (c) 460          (d) 540         (e) None of these

82. 625.97 × 7.5 + 299.87 = ? – 4632.64

(a) 9627.285       (b) 9672.85         (c) 9227.285       (d) 9762.285       (e) None of these

83. 16% of 250 + 115% of 480 = ?

(a) 522            (b) 588             (c) 582            (d) 498          (e) None of these

84. 45 × 2.8+ 4.5 × 1.6 = ?

(a) 56.23         (b) 56.32         (c) 53.26       (d) 53.66           (e) None of these

85. 55% of 860 + ?% of 450 = 581

(a) 24             (b) 28             (c) 32              (d) 36                  (e) None of these

86. 1740 ÷ 12 × 4070 ÷ 110 = ?

(a) 5635        (b) 5365          (c) 5465           (d) 5445              (e) None of these

87. 42 + 385.66 + 4976.38 = ?

(a) 5234.46    (b) 5434.46      (c) 5434.66      (d) 5244.66      (e) None of these

88. 7860 ÷ 24 × 12 + 370 = ?

(a) 4200          (b) 4300           (c) 4600           (d) 4400            (e) None of these

89. 5760 ÷ 45 × 15 = ?

(a) 1890           (b) 1828           (c) 1820        (d) 1928        (e) None of these

90. 9845 – 3896 + 486 = ? – 1128

(a) 7365           (b) 7463           (c) 7536          (d) 7653        (e) None of these

91. 222+ = 529

(a) 45              (b) 2045            (c) 2025          (d) 48            (e) None of these

92.   (45)²  + (?)² = 9864 – 6720

(a) 32 (b)33 (c) 34 (d) 43 (e) None of these

93. 2520 ÷ 14 ÷ 9 = ?

(a) 22             (b) 18               (c) 20               (d) 16               (e) None of these

94. image001

(a) 45             (b) 55                (c) 54              (d) 56                (e) None of these

95. 2% of 250 + 1.8% of 400 = ?

(a) 14.8          (b) 15.75             (c) 14.75         (d) 15.2              (e) None of these

 Directions (Q. 96-100):What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

96. 11, 13, 16, 20, ?

(a) 24              (b) 26               (c) 28              (d) 27                (e) None of these

97. 7, 13, 25, 49, ?

(a) 99             (b) 97                (c) 89              (d) 87                (e) None of these

98. 608, 304, 152, 76, ?

(a) 39            (b) 36            (c) 38             (d) 37           (e) None of these

99. 8, 6, 20, 63, ?

(a) 256         (b) 252         (c) 246            (d) 242         (e) None of these

100. 5, 6, 10, 19, ?

(a) 28           (b) 37              (c) 36            (d) 35            (e) None of these

101. Difference between the digits of a two digit number is 5 and the digit in the unit’s place is six times the digit in the ten’s place. What is the number?

(a) 27           (b) 72           (c) 16            (d) 61            (e) None of these

102. Find the average of the following set of numbers. 132, 148, 164, 128, 120, 136

(a) 142         (b) 136         (c) 138          (d) 144         (e) None of these

103. Kriya deposits an amount of Rs. 65800 to obtain in a simple interest at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. for 4 years. What total amount will Kriya get at the end of 4 years?

(a)Rs.102648           (b) Rs.115246             (c) Rs.125578            (d) Rs. 110324          (e) None of these

104. Populations of two villages X and Y are in the ratio of 5 : 7 respectively. If the population of village Y increase by 25000 and the population of Village X remains unchanged the respective ratio of their populations becomes 25 : 36. What is the population of village X?

(a) 625000       (b) 675000        (c) 875000     (d) 900000     (e) None of these

105. 56% of a number is less than its 72% by 56. What is 70% of that number?

(a) 300             (b) 235         (c) 240          (d) 350         (e) None of these

106. A 240 metre long train crosses a 300 metre long platform in 27 seconds. What is the speed of the train in kmph?

(a) 66         (b) 60           (c) 76                 (d) 64                   (e) None of these

107. Vandana sells an article for Rs. 3240 and earns a profit of 20%. What is the cost price of the article?

(a) Rs. 2800        (b) Rs. 2820        (c) Rs. 2750         (d) Rs. 2700        (e) None of these

108. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 7 days. In how many days will 28 men complete the same wrok?

(a) 6 days     (b) 8 days     (c) 3 days      (d) 4 days     (e) None of these

109. Sum of five consecutive even numbers is 380. What is the second number in ascending order?

(a) 76            (b) 78           (c) 74              (d) 72                (e) None of these

110. Cost of 6 dozen apples and 8 dozen bananas is Rs. 1400. What will be the cost of 15 dozen apples and 20 dozen bananas?

(a) Rs. 3200              (b) Rs. 3500         (c) Rs. 3600            (d) Rs. 4200                 (e) None of these

111. Beena and Meena started a boutique investing amounts of Rs. 35000 and Rs. 56000 respectively. If Beena’s share in the profit earned by them is Rs. 45000, what is the total profit earned?

(a) Rs. 81000           (b) Rs. 127000         (c) Rs. 72000           (d) Rs. 117000         (e) None of these

112. Simple interest accrued on an amount in eight years at 11 p.c.p.a. is Rs. 57200. What was the principal amount?

(a) Rs. 72000           (b) Rs. 82000           (c) Rs. 75000           (d) Rs. 65000           (e) None of these

113. Sharma invested an amount of Rs. 25000 in fixed deposit at compound interest 8 p.c.p.a. for two years. What amount Mr. Sharma will get on maturity?

(a) Rs. 28540           (b) Rs. 29160           (c) Rs. 29240           (d) Rs. 28240           (e) None of these

114. Four-seventh of a number is equal to 40% of another number. What is the ratio between the first number and the second number respectively?

(a) 5:4                          (b) 4:5                      (c) 10:7                    (d) 7:10                   (e) None of these

115. Nandkishore gives 35% of the money he had  to his wife and gave 50% of the money he had to his sons. Remaining amount of Rs. 11250 he kept for himself. What was the total amount of money Nandkishore had?

(a) Rs. 63750           (b) Rs. 75000           (c) Rs. 73650           (d) Rs. 72450           (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.

Number of Students studying five different disciplines from five Institutes

Discipline?Institute ? Arts Commerce Science Management Computer Science
A 350 260 450 140 300
B 240 320 400 180 320
C 460 300 360 160 380
D 440 480 420 120 340
E 280 360 340 200 330

116. Number of studying Commerce from Institute D is what percent of the total number of students studying all the disciplines together from this institute?

(a) 25.66    (b) 26.66      (c) 34.67      (d) 32.76      (e) None of these

117. What is the average number of students studying all disciplines together from Institute E?

(a) 312         (b) 310         (c) 302          (d) 304         (e) None of these

118. What is the ratio between total number of students studying science from Institute C and D together and the total number of students studying Computer science from these two Institutes respectively?

(a) 13:12       (b) 12:13       (c) 13:15       (d) 15:13       (e) None of these

119. What is the average number of students studying Commerce from all the Institutes together?

(a) 356         (b) 360         (c) 348          (d) 340         (e) None of these

120. Total number of students studying Arts from institutes A and B together is approximately what percent of the total number of students studying Computer Science from these two institutes?

(a) 84           (b) 85             (c) 88           (d) 90             (e) 95

Part  – IV (Reasoning Ability)

121. In a certain code BROWN is written as 531@% and MEAN is written as 26©%. How is ROBE written in that code?

(a) 3@16       (b) 3516        (c) 3156        (d) 3©16       (e) None of these

122. In a row of forty students R is fifth from the right end and there are 10 students between R and D. what is D’s position from the left end of the row?

(a) 26th         (b) 23rd         (c) 24th          (d) 25th         (e) Data inadequate

123. Among A, B, C, D and E each having scored different marks in an examination, B scored more than C and E and less than A and D. C’s marks are not the lowest. Who scored the lowest marks?

(a) D   (b) C   (c) B   (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

124. How many pairs of digits are there in the number 9431658 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

125. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters VLEI using each letter only once in each word?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

126. How many such pairs are letters are there in the word OVERWHELM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

127. What should come next in the following letter series?


(a) B            (b) C            (c) F             (d) D             (e) None of these

128. In a certain code ORBITAL is written as CSPHMBU. How is CHARGER written in that code?

(a) BIDQSFH          (b) BIDSSFH        (c) BIDQQDF        (d) DIBQSFH      (e) None of these

129. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) 196           (b) 256            (c) 529             (d) 576            (e) 324

130. Four of the following five are like in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one does not belong to that group?

(a) RPN         (b) WSU        (c) HDF         (d) LHJ          (e) QMO

131. If ‘+’ means ‘divided by’; ‘-‘ means ‘added to’; ‘×’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘+’ means ‘multiplied by’; then 26 – 15 + 5 × 4 ÷ 2 = ?

(a) 15              (b) 20             (c) 25                (d) 18              (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 132-137): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

R 5 # 3 $ M D P 1 4 F © A 6 E W J 2 @ d K 8 Q 7 % U T I * V 9

132. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the nineteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?

(a) D              (b) U              (c) ©               (d) d             (e) None of these

133. What should come in the following series based on the above arrangement?

53$ P4F 6WJ d8Q ?

(a) UI*          (b) UT*         (c) UIV          (d) UTV         (e) None of these

134. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

135. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the sixteenth from the right end?

(a) F               (b) W             (c) J               (d) d                (e) None of these

136. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

137. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?

(a) None       (b) One         (c) Two         (d) Three       (e) More than three

Directions (Q. 138-143): In the following questions, the symbols d, $, *, @ and © are used with the following meanings illustrated.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor greater than Q’

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’

‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’

In each question three statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II & III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.

138. Statements:

B © N, N @ R, F * R


I. B © R               II. F * N            III. R $ B

(a) Only I and II are true         (b) Only I and III are true    (c) Only Ii and III are true

(d) All I, II and III are true      (e) None of these

139. Statements:

D $ M, M * B, B d J


I. J © D         II. B @ D            III. J @ M

(a) Only I and II are true          (b) Only I and III are true    (c) Only II and III are true

(d) All I, II and III are true       (e) None of these

140. Statements:

F * T, T d N, N @ R


I. R $ T          II. N © F         III. F $ R

(a) None is true                (b) Only I is true             (c) Only II is true

(d) Only III is true           (e) Only II and III are true

141. Statements:

W d K, K © F, F $ M


I. M © K          II. W @ F          III. F @ W

(a) Only I is true       (b) Only Ii is true      (c) Only III is true

(d) Only II and III are true                           (e) None is true

142. Statements:

M @ D, D d K, K © R


I. R $ M              II. K d M           III. K $ M

(a) Only I is true       (b) Only II is true      (c) Only III is true     (d) Only II and III are true

(e) Only either II or III is true

143. Statements: 

F @ T, T d K, K * D


I. D @ F                II. F @ K                III. D @ T

(a) Only II and III are true    (b) Only I and III are true    (c) Only I and II are true

(d) All I, II and III are true   (e) None of these 

Directions (Q. 144-149): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, A, D, Q, T, M, R and B are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is third to the left of T who is fifth to the right of P. A is third to the right of B who is second to the right of D. Q is second to the left of M.

144. Who is second to the right of M?

(a) B                (b) R               (c) T             (d) Q                                       (e) None of these

145. Who is to the immediate right of D?

(a) M              (b) Q               (c) B             (d) Data inadequate              (e) None of these

146. Who is third to the right of P?

(a) D              (b) M               (c) R             (d) Data inadequate              (e) None of these

147. Who is second to the left of D?

(a) A              (b) Q                (c) B              (d) P           (e) Data inadequate

148. In which of the following pairs the first person is sitting to the immediate right of the second person?

(a) DM          (b) BT           (c) RA           (d) PQ           (e) PA

149. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A?

(a) PT           (b) PB           (c) TQ           (d) PD            (e) None of these

 Directions (Q. 150-155): In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (d) and (e) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

150. Statements:

Some bikes are cars

Some cars are trains

Some trains are buses


I. Some buses are cars

II. Some trains are bikes

III. Some buses are bikes

(a) None follows

(b) Only I follows

(c) Only II follows

(d) Only III follows

(e) Only I and II follow

151. Statements:

All dogs are cats

Some cats are rats

All rats are mats


I. some mats are cats

II. Some mats are dogs

III. Some rats are cats

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Only III follows

(d) Only I and III follow

(e) None of these

152. Statements:

All cups are benches

Some benches are drums

All drums are cups


I. All cups are benches

II. Some benches are drums

III. All drums are kites

(a) None follows

(b) Only I follows

(c) Only II follows

(d) Only III follows

(e) Only II and III follow

153. Statements:

Some boxes are walls

No wall is road

All roads are rivers


I. Some rivers are walls

II. Some roads are boxes

III. No wall is river

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only either I or III follows

(c) Only III follows

(d) Only II follows

(e) Only II and III follow

154. Statements:

Some tables are chairs

All chairs are houses

All houses are tents


I. All houses are chairs

II. Some tents are chairs

III. Some houses are tables

(a) Only I and II follow

(b) Only I and III follow

(c) Only II and III follow

(d) All I, II and III follow

(e) None of these

155. Statements:

All pens are sticks

All sticks are rings

All rings are rods


I. Some rings are pens

II. Some rods are sticks

III. Some rods are pens

(a) Only I and II follow

(b) Only I and III follow

(c) Only II and III follow

(d) All I, II and III follow

(e) None of these

Directions (156-160): In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the questions or may be related to a trivial aspect of the questions.

156. Statements:

Should the government deregulate the retail price of petrol, diesel and cooking gas and allow the price to be driven by market conditions?


I. Yes, this will largely help the oil companies to sell their products at competitive price.

II. No, the general public cannot afford market driven prices of these products.

III. Yes, government needs to stop subsidizing these products and channelize the money for developmental projects.

(a) Only I and II are strong

(b) Only I and III are strong

(c) Only II and III are strong

(d) All I, II and III are strong

(e) None of these

157. Statements: Should the government take over all the private passenger transport companies across the country.


I. Yes, this should be done as the government runs the railways

II. No, government does not have expertise to handle such operations.

III. Yes, this way general public can be taken out of the clutches of the private transport companies.

(a) Only I is strong

(b) Only I and II strong

(c) Only II and III strong

(d) All I, II and III are strong

(e) None of these

158. Statement:

Should the institutes of higher learning’s in India like IITs and IIMs be made totally free from government control?


I. Yes, such institutes in the developed countries are run by non-government agencies.

II. No, government needs to regulate functions of these institutes for national interest.

III. No, these institutes are not capable to take policy decisions for smooth functioning.

(a) Only I is strong

(b) Only II is strong

(c) Only III is strong

(d) Only I and III are strong

(e) None of these

159. Statement:

Should the parliament elections in India be held on a single day throughout the country?


I. Yes, this is the only way to handle such elections.

II. Yes, this will help the com-mission to concentrate on a single day for election related issues.

III. No, some other countries hold such elections spread over several days.

(a) None is strong

(b) Only I is strong

(c) Only II is strong

(d) Only in is strong

(e) Only I and II are strong

160. Statement:

Should there be a common pay structure of the central government and all state government employees in the country?


I. No, each state government should have the freedom to decide the pay structure of its employees.

II. No, the workload and responsibilities of central government and state government employees differ and hence there should be different pay structure.

III. Yes, all are government employees and hence they should be treated equally irrespective of their working with central government or any state government.

(a) Only I is strong

(b) Only I and III are strong

(c) Only III is strong

(d) Only II and III are strong

(e) None of these

Part – V (Computer Knowledge)

161. CPU stands for
(a) Computer Processing Unit (b) Central Processing Unit (c) Computer Protection Unit (d) Central Processing Upload (e) None of these
162. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into ______
(a) Websites (b) information (c) programs (d) objects (e) None of these
163. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into _______
(a) Machine language (b) An algorithm (c) A debugged program (d) Java (e) None of these
164. What is correcting errors in a program called?
(a) Compiling (b) Debugging (c) Grinding (d) Interpreting (e) None of these
165. The _______ of a system includes the programs or instructions
(a) hardware (b) icon (c) information (d) software (e) None of these
166. Back up of the data files will help to prevent _______
(a) loss of confidentiality (b) duplication of data (c) virus infection (d) loss of data (e) None of these
167. Text in column is generally aligned _________
(a) justified (b) right (c) center (d) left (e) None of these
168. The background of any Word document ________
(a) is always white colour (b) is the colour you preset under the Options menu (c) is always the same for the entire document (d) can have any colour you choose (e) None of these
169. In order to save an existing document with a different name you need to _______
(a) Retype the document and give it a different name (b) Use the Save as command (c) Copy and paste the original document to a new document and then save (d) Use Windows explorer to copy the document to a different location and then rename it (e) None of these
170. Which one of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(a) Database (b) Document processor (c) Graphics package (d) Spreadsheet (e) None of these
171. What would you do to highlight a word? You position the cursor next to the word, and then _____
(a) Drag mouse while holding button down (b) Click mouse once (c) Roll mouse around (d) Roll and then click mouse (e) None of these
172. A ______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm
(a) programming language (b) syntax (c) programming structure (d) logic chart (e) None of these
173. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(a) TXT (b) WRD (c) FIL (d) IDOC (e) None of these
174. Which is the part of the computer system that one can physically touch?
(a) Data (b) Operating systems (c) hardware (d) software (e) None of these
175. In page preview mode ____
(a) You can see all pages of your document (b) You can only see the page you are currently working (c) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics (d) You can only see the title page of your document (e) None of these
176. Cross selling is very effective in the sale of one of the following ____
(a) Debit cards (b) Credit cards (c) Internet Banking (d) Auto loans (e) None of these
177. Cross selling means ______
(a) One salesman selling to another salesman (b) selling across territories (c) selling across countries (d) selling additional products to existing customers (e) All of these
178. Target market for Debit Cards is ________
(a) All existing account holders (b) All sales persons (c) All NRI’s (d) All HNI’s (e) All of these
179. Market Penetration can be possible through _____
(a) more calls to the same buyers (b) more calls to many buyers (c) surrogate marketing (d) alternate marketing (e) All of these
180. Cross selling can be resorted to by _____
(a) all sales persons (b) all employees (c) all employers (d) outsourced agencies (e) All service providers
181. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym
(a) CD (b) DVD (c) ROM (d) RW (e) None of these
182. _______ is processed by the computer into information
(a) Data (b) Numbers (c) Alphabets (d) Pictures (e) None of these
183. A ________ is an electronic devices that process data, converting it into information
(a) computer (b) processor (c) case (d) stylus (e) None of these
184. Market innovation means _______
(a) Design new products (b) New styles of marketing (c) new ideas in sales steps (d) Only (a) and (b) (e) All (a), (b) and (c)
185. File extensions are used in order to ___
(a) name the file (b) ensure the file name is not lost (c) identify the file (d) identify the file type (e) None of these
186. Market Penetration connotes ________
(a) Covering a wide area of the Market for sales (b) Entering the buyers houses (c) Entering the sellers’ houses (d) Entering all shops and business houses (e) All of these
187. The most common type of storage devices are ______
(a) persistent (b) optical (c) magnetic (d) flash (e) None of these
188. SME means _____
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises (b) Small Marketing Enterprises (c) Small Scale Marketing Entities (d) Small And Medium Establishments (e) The whole organization sells
190. Savings Accounts with zero balance can be opened for ______
(a) persons below BPL (b) under Financial Inclusion scheme (c) Students (d) As per Bank’s Policies (e) None of these
191. “Out sourcing” means service rendered by ________
(a) outside agencies (b) other departments of the company (c) employee, other than the sales persons (d) marketing departments (e) All of these
192. In modern day marketing, the benefits of selling extend to _____
(a) Only product and services (b) Only after sales services (c) Lifelong relationship with the buyer (d) All of these (e) None of these
193. One of the following is not a target group for SME loans ________
(a) all professionals (b) large industries (c) truck operators (d) beauty parlours (e) hotels and restaurants
194. The performance of a salesperson can be enhanced by _______
(a) increasing the sales incentives (b) increasing the number of products to be sold (c) appropriate training (d) All of these (e) None of these
195. Team building is required _________
(a) Only for lead generation (b) only for after sales service (c) for cross selling (d) All of these (e) None of these
196. For sustained relationship with the buyer, one of the following is necessary
(a) Continuity (b) Consistency (c) Understanding (d) Empathy (e) All of these
197. Sales Promotion involves – Find the incorrect option _______
(a) Building Product Awareness (b) Creating Interest (c) Providing Information (d) Designing new products (e) None of these
198. Target market for Home loans is _____
(a) all builders (b) all housing societies (c) agriculturists (d) All of these (e) None of these
199. Lead generation is ______
(a) a pre-sales function (b) a function of the customer (c) a function of the manufacturing department (d) a post sales function (e) All of these
200. Financial Inclusion means ______
(a) Opening Accounts of Finance Companies (b) Financial Analysis of balance sheet figures (c) Opening Accounts of HNI’s (d) Opening Accounts of NRI’s (e) Opening Accounts of underprivileged persons

 Answer key:

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (e)
9. (c) 10. (e) 11. (a) 12. (e) 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (a) 16. (d)
17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (e) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (e) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (e) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (e) 46. (d) 47. (e) 48. (a)
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (e) 56. (a)
57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (e) 60. (c) 61. (a) 62. (e) 63. (d) 64. (b)
65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (e) 69. (e) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (b)
73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (e) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (e) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (b)
89. (e) 90. (e) 91. (c) 92. (e) 93. (c) 94. (e) 95. (d) 96. (e)
97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (d) 101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (a)
105. (e) 106. (e) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (b) 111. (d) 112. (d)
113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (a) 119. (e) 120. (e)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (e) 124. (c) 125. (e) 126. (e) 127. (b) 128. (a)
129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (e) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (b)
137. (b) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (c) 141. (e) 142. (d) 143. (a) 144. (c)
145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (e) 149. (e) 150. (a) 151. (d) 152. (c)
153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (b) 157. (e) 158. (b) 159. (a) 160. (c)
161. (b) 162. (b) 163. (a) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (d)
169. (b) 170. (d) 171. (e) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (c) 175. (a) 176. (b)
177. (d) 178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (a) 181. (d) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (e)
185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (b) 190. (d) 191. (a) 192. (b)
193. (a) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (c) 197. (d) 198. (a) 199. (a) 200. (a)


Selection process will be based on written test and interview. Written exam pattern will be different for Clerk and PO category. There will be single paper of objective type for Clerk category. Questions will be set on 5 different categories: Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, General Awareness, Marketing Aptitude and Computer Awareness.

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