A Degree (Graduation level) from a recognised university, or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central/State Government. Note:

(a) The date of passing the eligibility examination will be the date appearing on the mark sheet/ provisional certificate or the date on which the result was posted on the website of the university / institution. Candidate having integrated dual degree (IDD) certificate should ensure that the date of passing the IDD is on or before 01.12.2014.

(b) Matriculate Ex-servicemen, who have obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force, after having completed not less than 15 years of service in Armed Forces of the Union are also eligible for the post. Such certificates should be dated on or before 01.12.2014.

(c) Should be able to write and speak English.

(d) Knowledge of local language will be an added qualification.

Age Limit:

A candidate should be between 20 – 28 years as on 01-05-2014 for the July/August 2014 exam.

Category Age Relaxation (years)
PWD 10
Domiciled in J & K during the period 1/1/1980 to 31/12/1989 5

Vacancies are reserved for Disabled (Physically Challenged) Persons under Section 33 of the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 (1 of 1996) as per government guidelines. Candidates with following disabilities are eligible to apply as per the definitions given in the above act:

a) Blindness

b) Low Vision

c) Hearing Impairment

d) Locomotor Disability or Cerebral Palsy.

Only such persons would be eligible for reservation in services/ posts who suffer from not less than 40% of relevant disability. A person who wants to avail the benefit of reservation will have to submit a Disability Certificate issued by Medical Board duly constituted by Central or State Government. The certificate should be dated on or before last date of registration of application.   Candidates falling in the following categories of the disabled may apply for the post:

Categories of the Disabled suitable for the post: OA, BL, OL, PD, D, B, LV

(a) impaired reach;OA – One arm affected (Right or Left) –

(b) weakness of grip;

(c) ataxia BL – Both legs affected but not arms, OL – One leg affected (Right or Left), PD – Partially deaf D – Deaf, B – Blind, LV – Low Vision Only those Visually handicapped persons who suffer from any one of the following conditions are eligible to apply.

i) Total absence of sight.

ii) Visual acuity not exceeding 6/60 or 20/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with correcting lenses.

iii) Limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of 20 degrees or worse. Candidates having low vision as defined in Chapter I, Para 2 (u) of The persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, protections of rights and full participation) Act 1995. The blind candidates/low vision candidates and candidates who are locomotor impaired in both hands and both arms and candidates whose writing speed is affected by cerebral palsy can use own scribe at their cost during the examination.

In all such cases where a scribe is used, the following rules will apply:

i) The candidatewill have to arrange his/her own scribe at his/her own cost.

ii) Both the candidate as well as the scribe will have to give a suitable undertaking in the prescribed format with passport size photograph of scribe at the time of online test.

iii) Blind/low vision candidates/candidates who are locomotor impaired in both arms and whose writing speed is affected and also candidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy are eligible for compensatory time of 20minutes for every hour of the examination.


Only those candidates shall be treated as Ex-Servicemen who fulfil the revised definition as laid down in Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms NotificationNo.36034/5/85/Estt(SCT) dated 27thOctober, 1986 as amended from time to time. Disabled Ex-Servicemen: Ex-Servicemen who while serving in Armed Forces of the Union were disabled in operation against the enemy or in disturbed areas shall be treated as Disabled Ex-Servicemen. Dependents of Servicemen killed inAction : Servicemen killed in the following operations would be deemed to have been killed in action attributable to Military Service

(a) war

(b) warlike operations or border skirmishes either with Pakistan on cease fire line or any other country

(c) Fighting against armed hostiles in a counter insurgency environment viz. Nagaland, Mizoram, etc.

(d) Serving with peace-keeping mission abroad

(e) Laying or clearance of mines including enemy mines as also mine sweeping operation between onemonth before and threemonths after conclusion of an operation

(f) Frost-bite during actual operations or during the period specified by the Government

(g) Dealing with agitating Para- Military forces personnel

(h) IPKF personnel killed during the operations in Sri Lanka. The reservation available to such candidates shall be asmentioned under point no. 2 given underthe vacancy table. For the purpose of this reservation, the member of the family would include his widow, son and daughter or near relations who agree to support his family. The relaxation in upper age and educational qualifications available to Ex-servicemenwill not be available to dependents of Servicemen killed in action.


1) (i) Candidates, who are released / retired from Armed Forces, are required to submit a certificate as per Proforma ‘A’ attached to this advertisement if they do not possess discharge certificate/booklet,

(ii) The candidates, who are still serving in Armed Forces and desirous of applying under Ex-Servicemen category will be required to submit a certificate (Proforma ‘B’) from the competent authority showing his/her candidates whose SPE is completed on or before 31.12.2015 only are eligible to apply under this recruitment. They will also be required to submit the release letter along with a self-declaration at the time of joining the Bank that he/she is entitled to the benefits admissible to Ex-Servicemen in terms of Govt. of India rules,

(iii) Those candidates, who have already completed their initial period of engagement and are on extended assignment, are required to submit certificate as per Proforma ‘D’. If selected, such candidates mentioned in (ii) and (iii) above, should get released and join the Bank on or before 29.02.2016. These certificates are required to be submitted at the time of interview invariably.

2) The Territorial Army Personnel will be treated as Ex-Servicemen w.e.f. 15.11.1986.

3)An Ex-Serviceman who has once joined a Government job on the civil side after availing of the benefits given to him as an Ex-Serviceman for his reemployment, his Ex-Serviceman status will be governed in terms of OM No.36014/1/2014 Estt(Res) dated.


SBI Associate Clerical selection procedure consists of two phases – Online Exam & Interview 

Online Examination Pattern
Subjects Questions Max Marks Time
General Awareness 40 40 Composite time of 135 minutes or 2 hours 15 minutes
General English 40 40
Quantitative Aptitude 40 40
Reasoning Ability 40 40
Marketing/Computer 40 40

The questions in objective tests, except for the test of General English, will be bilingual i.e., English & Hindi.
There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests. 1/4th mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates will have to pass in each of the objective tests.
The passing marks in each of the tests will be decided by the Bank on the basis of the performance of all the competing candidates taken together in each test to a minimum required level. Candidates are also required to score a minimum percentage marks on aggregate (For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/XS candidates, 5% relaxation available thereon) for being considered for interview. Minimum percentage marks on aggregate will be decided by the bank.


Other detailed information regarding the examination will be given in the ‘Acquaint Yourself’ booklet, which will be made available to the eligible candidates along with the call letter for the test.


Candidates qualified in the test will be placed according to their marks in descending order in respective categories. Depending upon the number of vacancies only certain number of candidates from amongst those who qualify by ranking high enough in the merit will be called for interview in the ratio of maximum 3 candidates for each vacancy. Candidates are required to score a minimum percentage marks (to be decided by the bank) in interview to be considered for final selection. 5% relaxation for SC/ST/ OBC/PWD/XS category will be available thereon. The knowledge of local languages will be tested in the interveiw. 10% weightage would be given out of total marks (35) for interview for possessing working knowledge of local language. Final selectionwill bemade on the basis of candidate’s performance in the test and interview taken together.


Interview call letters will be uploaded on the Bank’s website after declaration of result of online test. Candidates will have to download the same from our website. No hard copy of interview call letter will be sent by post.

Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in the online test and interview taken together.
Merely satisfying the eligibility norms does not entitle a candidate to be called for test or interview.


Syllabus for SBI Associate Bank Clerk will be mostly same as SBI Clerk examination

1. Quantitative Aptitude

Arithmetic: Numbers, Simplification, Root, Average, Surds and Indices, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Ratio and Proportion, Partnership, Chain Rule, Time and Work, Pipes and Cisterns, Time and Distance, Problems on Trains, Boats and Streams, Allegation, Simple Interest ,Compound Interest, Stocks and Shares, Clocks, Logarithm, Menstruation, Volume and Surface Area, Permutation and Combination, Probability, Heights and Distances.

Data interpretation:

Line Graphs, Bar Graphs, Pie Charts and Tabulation.

2. Reasoning Ability

Alphabet Test, Number Series Test, Odd Man Out,  Analogy, Coding & decoding, Blood relations, Sitting arrangements, Direction test, Series completion, syllogisms, Decision making, Statement and Conclusion and Data Sufficiency

3. General English

Vocabulary: Synonyms, Antonyms, Homonyms, Word Formation, Sentence Completion.

Comprehension: Theme detection, Deriving Conclusion, Passage Completion.

Error Detection and Rearrangement: Passage Correction, Sentence Detection, Spelling.

Grammar: Active Passive voice, Direct Indirect Speech.

General Usage: Idioms and Phrases.

4.  General Awareness

Knowledge of Current Affairs, Sports, History, Geography, Culture, Indian Constitution, Scientific Research, India and its  neighboring countries.

5. Marketing Aptitude

Marketing Basics, Terminology and Abbreviations, Marketing Concept, Marketing Types, Marketing Mix, Concept of Buying & Selling, SWOT Analysis, CRM, Market Research, Market Information, Market Segmentation, Branding, Marketing Research.

6. Computer Awareness

Basic Computer Terminology, Abbreviations, Hard ware and Software basics, Operating Systems, Shortcut Keys, Internet, Information Security, MS Office, MS Word, MS Excel, MS Power Point, MS access, internet & networks, Basic security concepts, Latest technologies

 Blue Print

Subjects Year 23 Nov 2010 30 Nov 2010 2011
Quantitative Aptitude Percentage and of 5 5 3
Addition, subtraction 2 2
Power 1
Division 1 1
Multi Division 3 3 1
Square, Cube and Roots 1 8
Number Series 5 5 5
Number System 2 1 8
Average 2 3 1
Simple and compound Interest 1 1 1
Ratio & Proportion 2 2
Percentage 2 2 4
Fraction 4 4 1
Time and Work 1 1 1
Trains 1 1 3
Profit and Loss 1 1 1
Chain Rule 1 1
Partnership 1
Age 1 1 2
DI Case Studies
DI (Table) 5 5  
Data Interpretation (Bar)
Reasoning Analogy 2 2 2
Number Ranking 1 1
Alphabet Test 2 2 2
Blood Relation 1
Coding-Decoding 8 7 7
Seating Arrangement 5 5  
Letter Series 2 2 1
Analytical Reasoning 6
Mathematical Operations 5 5  
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5 4  
Syllogism 5 5 10
Directions Test 1
Data Sufficiency 6
Non-Verbal Series 5 5 5
English Comprehension 10 10 10
Synonyms 3 3 3
Antonyms 2 2 2
Spotting Errors 15
Idiom and Phrase 5 5  
Spelling Correction 5 5  
Sentence Completion 5
Sentence Rearrangement 5 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10  
General Knowledge Banking 10 8 17
Books and Authors 3 2 3
Constitutions of India 7 8 5
History 2 2
Marketing 1
Indian Economy 4 6 4
Famous Places
Geography 2
Sports 5 3
Famous Personalities 4
Awards 5 3  
Research stations and Institutions in India
Miscellaneous (Space), Projects 1 1 2
General Science 2 2
Agriculture 2 2
Days to Remember 1
Current Affairs – Famous Personality, Famous Place 3
Computer Knowledge Database 2 40
Network 4 2
Hardware 3 6
Software 3 4
Basics of computer 6 6
Internet 1 1
Marketing Aptitude 21 21


Part–I: General Awareness

1. Which of the following nations is found at the top of the “World’s Green Index”, compiled by various global agencies jointly?
(a) China (b) India (c) USA (d) Britain (e) Japan
2. Which of the following agencies has estimated that by the year 2015 about a quarter of India’s population will be living in extreme poverty?
(a) Asian Development Bank (b) World Bank (c) U N Economic & Social Council (d) U N Food and Agricultural Organisation (e)International Monetary Fund
3. As per the reports of the survey conducted by various agencies jointly, which of the following countries is adjudged as the “Most Favoured Nation” for back office support to the world’s major multinationals?
(a) China (b) South Africa (c) Singapore (d) India (e) None of these
4. The ‘H1N1’ virus is responsible for the outbreak of which of the following in the world?
(a) AIDS (b) Swine Flue (c) Polio (d) T.B (e)Chikungunya
5. The present Lok Sabha is formed after the——–
(a) 13th general elections (b) 14th general elections (c) 15th general elections (d) 16th general elections (e) None of these
6. The govt. of India announced a special relief package of several thousand crores of rupees for which of the following sections of our society?
(a) Senior Citizens (b) Women Employees of Central Government (c) Farmers (d) Workers in unorganized sectors (e) All of these
7. As per the news paper reports, India is in the process of purchasing some “mid-air refuellers” are being procured for which of the following establishments?
(a) Indian Airlines & Air India (b) India Air Force (c) Ministry of Civil Aviation (d) Pawan Hans (e) Ministry of Surface Transport
8. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the number of India’s wireless subscribers has become about 400 million. Which of the following agencies, as a regulator, has published this data?
(a) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (b) MTNL (c) Department of Telecommunication Services (DTS) (d)Association of Cellular Service Providers (e) None of these
9. The President of India in her first speech in the joint session of the current parliament had said that every family living below poverty line would get 25 kgs of wheat/rice per month at @ Rs 3 per kg. To achieve this she recommended enacting of which of the following Acts?
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (b) National Agricultural Commodities & Warehousing Act (c) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Act (d) National Minimum Wages Act (e) National Food Security Act
10. Late Y.S. Rajasekhar Reddy who passed away a few months back was holding which of the following positions?
(a) Chief Minister of a state (b) Union Cabinet Minister (c) Governor of a State (d) Chief Secretary of a State (e) India’s permanent Representative in the UNO
11. Who amongst the following is not a member of the present Union Cabinet?
(a) Ambika Soni (b) Kamalnath (c) Rahul Gandhi (d)Jyotiraditya Scindia (e) Vilasrao Deshmukh
12. The market value of all final goods and services produced and/or made with the geographical boundaries of a country in a year is known as———
(a) Gross Domestic Product (b) Gross National Saving (c) Gross Fiscal Deficit (d) Gross Domestic Capital Formation (e) None of these
13. Organisation of workers in which of the following groups has proved a very effective way of providing micro finance by banks to the rural people and poor in India?
(a) Self Help Groups (b) Vriksha Mitras (c) Shiksha Sevaks (d) Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) (e) Link Workers
14. Almost all Banks in India are running special schemes for providing banking services to rural poor. This concept is popularly known as———-
(a) Faster Growth (b) Trade Finance (c) SME Finance (d) Investment Banking (e) Financial Inclusion
15. India is not a member of which of the following organizations?
(a) SAARC (b) WTO (c) BRIC (d) UNO (e) OPEC
16. Which of the following things is done in the Union Budget 2009-10, to help “Tax payers” in India?
(a) Mobile phones, branded jewellery and leather products will cost less as the Custom duty is reduced on them (b) Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is increased by 30% (c) Farm Loan Waiver scheme is extended to 31st December 2009 (d) Fringe Benefit Tax abolished (e) None of these
17. The Government of India has increased its allocation of funds to which of the following schemes by 144% in current union budget, as it has proved to be a very popular scheme amongst the rural job seekers?
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (b) National Food for Work Programme (c) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (e) None of these
18. Special emphasis by the Govt of India on which of the following will certainly improve the performance of the agriculture sector in country within a short span of time?
(a) Focused Public Distribution System (b) Sanitation & Health Services (c) Rural Employment (d) Better irrigation facilities (e) All of these
19. Which of the following Acts is enacted to help the Union Govt. to manage its budgeted finances and finances and fiscal deficit in a very disciplined manner?
(a) The Competition Act (b) The Baking Regulation Act (c) The Negotiable Instrument Act (d) Foreign Exchange Management Act (e) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
20. The Reserve bank of India is in the process of selling its take in which of the following agencies/ organizations?
(a) NABARD (b) Food Corporation of India (c) Steel Authority of India Ltd (d) Bombay Stock Exchange (e) None of these
21. Which of the following is Bank Rate at present?
(a) 3% (b) 4% (c) 5% (d) 6% (e) None of these
22. The war between Russia and which of the following nations in 2008 is known as “August war”?
(a) Georgia (b) Iran (c) Slovakia (d) Afghanistan (e) None of these
23. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Ministry of Rural Development?
(a) Mid Day Meal Scheme (b) Janani Suraksha Yojana (c) Know India Programme (d) National Food for Work Programme (e) None of these
24. Late Norman Borlaug who passed away recently, was famous for his contribution to which of the following in India?
(a) Operation Flood (b) Operation black Board (c) Cooperative Movement in Milk production (d) Green Revolution (e) None of these
25. Which of the following taxes is not levied by the Government of India?
(a) Income Tax (b) Professional Tax (c) Excise Duty (d) Dividend Distribution Tax (e) Capital Gain Tax
26. Which of the following schemes is launched to make Indian cities free from slums in days to come?
(a) Indira Awas Yojana (b) Bharat Nirman (c) Rajiv Awas Yojana (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal mission (e) None of these
27. Which of the following books is written by Namita Gokhale?
(a) A Himalayan Love Story (b) Soul Mountain (c) A New World (d) The Last Hero (e) None of these
28. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Badminton?
(a) Double Fault (b) Punch (c) Follow on (d) Tee (e) None of these
29. Cashew nut is not produced as a major product in which of the following states?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Goa (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Orissa (e) Andhra Pradesh
30. Who amongst the following was awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2009?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Abhishek Jha (c) Saina Nehwal (d) M.C. Mary Kom (e) None of these
31. Which of the following awards is not given by the Government of India?
(a) Bharat Ratna (b) Padma Vibhushan (c) Ashok Chakra (d) Kalinga Prize (e) All are given by the Government of India
32. Which of the following is not a banking related term?
(a) Discount (b) Credit (c) Reynolds Number (d) Post Dated Cheque (e) Time Deposit
33. Who amongst the following was a famous author and director?
(a) C.V. Raman (b) Vijay Tendulkar (c) Bidhanchandra Roy (d) Bismillah Khan (e) Vilayat Khan
34. Who amongst the following can never be a winner of the Nobel Prize?
(a) An Author (b) A Medical Doctor (c) An Economist (d) A Physicist (e) A world famous Musician
35. Which of the following is not the name of an irrigation system prevalent in India?
(a) Sprinkler System (b) Silage System (c) Drip System (d) Furrow System (e) Canal System
36. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(a) Bombay Gold Cup (b) Davis Cup (c) Ranji Trophy (d) Vizzy Trophy (e) Nehru Trophy
37. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar?
(a) By God’s Decree (b) Freedom From Fear (c) Sunny Days (d) Story of My Life (e) None of these
38. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related with the game of cricket?
(a) Deodhar Trophy (b) Irani Trophy (c) Subroto Cup (d) Ranji Trophy (e) ICC Trophy
39. Deep Joshi was given Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2009 for his contribution in the field of———
(a) Literature (b) Sports (c) Cinema (d) Journalism (e) Rural Development
40. Which of the following operation is conducted after a gap of every ten years?
(a) Economic Survey (b) Estimates of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) (c) Compilation of Human Development Report (d) Census of Small Scale Enterprises (e) General Census

Part–II: General English

Directions (41-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once a king saw some young boys pelting stones on a snake. He prevented the boys from killing the snake. Thus, he saved its life. The snake, which was the king of the Snake World, thanked him and favoured him with a supernatural gift by which he could understand the language of any animal. But he warned him that the divulgence of the secret would cost him his life.
One day, when the king was sitting in his garden and enjoying breakfast, a small portion of the sweet fell on the ground. Soon he heard an ant shouting, “My God, what a big wagon-ful of sweet has fallen and there is none to consume it. Ah! I can enjoy all, now.” Hearing this, the king smiled and chuckled. The queen, who was sitting next to him, was curious to note the changing countenance of the king. She asked him to tell her the reason for the smile. But the king kept silent as the divulgence of the secret would cost him his life. The queen felt offended and thought that there was something which the king did not want to tell in public.
At night, when the king was relaxing in the verandah, the queen repeated the same question and demanded the answer. The king then told her that the divulgence of that secret would cost him his life. Nonetheless, the queen persisted by throwing tantrums. Still when the king kept his silence, she attacked his self-respect by calling him a “liar” and muttered that all his expressions of endearment like You are dearer to me than my very life” – were nothing but a pack of lies. The king, however, could not bear the attacks on his self- respect and eventually conceded to divulge the secret on the following day in the royal, garden; and made up his mind to sacrifice his life.
A donkey overheard the king’s resolve and decided to save him, because the king was righteous. So, he picked up one of his friends – the goat and they both decided to save the king.
Next day, when the king and his retinues were on the way to the royal park, the donkey and the goat stood conversing on one side of the path. The king overheard the goat saying to the donkey, “You are a fool but not as big a fool as is the king.” Having heard so, the king was curious to know as to why was he being called a “bigger fool”. So, he asked the goat “Why do you think that I am a bigger fool than a donkey?” The goat replied, “Look O king! Today you are going to die to please your wife; but tomorrow when your wife inherits all your wealth to enjoy it with a new mate would she ever think of you?” This statement of the goat opened the eyes of the king and he realised his folly. He then reconsidered his decision to die to please his queen and resolved not to sacrifice his precious life. So, he said to the goat. “Pray, then tell me what to do as I am now committed to tell her the secret”.
The goat said, “If you want to come out of the mess then go and tell her that you are ready to reveal to her the secret on the condition that she agrees to receive one hundred lashes on her back”.
When the king reached the garden he said to the queen, “I am now ready to tell you the secret on the condition that you are willing to receive one hundred lashes in return”. The queen considered the condition a joke and nodded in agreement. The king then waved at one of his guards to lash her with all his power. And no sooner than she received two lashes she wailed and shouted “No ! Stop, do not lash me! I don’t want to know the secret now”.
The king then said scornfully. “You wanted to know the secret at the cost of my life; but now you don’t want to know because you have to save your skin. You deserve a few more lashes.” But before he could order his man to give her a few more lashes, the king’s trustworthy minister intervened and requested him to forgive her. Thus, the queen was not lashed further, yet she never received the same honour and dignity.

41. Why did the snake give a gift to the King?

(a) As the king did not kill the snake

(b) As the snake liked the king a lot

(c) As the king was an honourable man and wanted the gift

(d) As the king had saved the snake from a few boys who were trying to kill it with stones

(e) None of these

42. What can possibly be the moral of the story?

(a) A stitch in time saves nine

(b) Honesty is the best policy

(c) Promises are meant to be broken

(d) Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder

(e) Do onto others as you would want others to do to you

43. Why did the queen agree to the condition laid down by the king in order to know the secret?

(a) As she was very strong physically and would endure the condition laid down

(b) As she thought that the king was only joking and would not actually do what he had said

(c) As the condition laid down by the king was not too difficult

(d) As she desperately wanted to know the secret and would do anything in return

(e) None of these

44. Why did the King chuckle?

(a) As he had heard an ant talking about the sweet fallen on the ground

(b) As he was enjoying his breakfast a lot

(c) As he knew that the queen could not hear the animals talk

(d) As he was very proud of his newly acquired power

(e) None of these

45. Which of the following words can be used to describe the queen?

(A) Loyal (B) Selfish (C) Prying

(a) Only (a)                           (b) Only (b)               (c) Only (b) and (c)

(d) Only (a) and (c)             (e) All the three (a), (b) and (c)

46. Why did the queen not receive the same honour and dignity as she had before?

(a) As the king had left her and she was no longer the queen

(b) As she had cared for her own life but not for the life of the king

(c) As she had told the secret to everyone in the kingdom

(d) As she wanted to punish the king

(e) None of these

47. What explanation did the goat give to the king for calling him a bigger fool than a donkey?

(a) That the king had been wrong to tell the secret to the queen

(b) That the king was not ruling his kingdom very well

(c) That once the king had sacrificed his life for his queen, she would find someone else and enjoy the king’s wealth

(d) That the king was being taken advantage of by his subjects and that he was unaware of it

(e) None of these

48. What was the condition on which the king agreed to tell the secret to the queen?

(a) That the king would tell her the secret only if she left him for another man

(b) That once she was told the secret she would have to be killed

(c) That the queen would have to talk to animals once she knew the secret

(d) That the queen could never tell anyone else about the secret

(e) None of these

49. Which of the following can be said about the king?

(A) He was noble (B) He was impatient (C) He was selfless

(a) Only (a)                    (b) Only (c)                (c) Only (a) and (b)

(d) Only (a) and (c)     (e) All the three (a), (b) and (c)

50. Why did the king agree to tell the secret to the queen in the first place?

(a) As the queen had been rally persistent and had said that the king was dishonest

(b) As he had wanted to share the secret with someone for a very long time

(c) As he did not value his life much

(d) As he knew that by telling the queen his secret she too would get the same powers as him

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 51-53): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
(a) Biased (b) Witnessed (c) Liked (d) Demanded (e) Presented
(a) Form (b) Clause (c) State (d) Situation (e) Circumstance
(a) Throwing (b) Practising (c) Dropping (d) Wasting (e) Sticking
Directions (Q. 54-55): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
(a) Realized (b) Gave up (c) Resisted (d) Relaxed (e) Surrendered
(a) Scared (b) Wrong (c) Honourable (d) Immoral (e) Weird

Directions (Q. 56-60) Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
(A) So the next day when the birds had flown off to lock for food, the bird catcher spread his net under the tree.
(B) One day a bird catcher wandering through the forest came upon a banyan tree where a flock of Pigeons rested.
(C) But as they were very clever, they flapped their wings together, lifted the net off the ground and flew away with it.
(D) He knew that if he managed to catch even half the pigeons, he would be able to sell them in the market for a very good price
(E) To their shock, they all realized that they had landed right into the net that the bird catcher had set for them.
(F) That evening when the pigeons came back, they flew down together to the foot of the banyan tree

56. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
57. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F
58. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F
59. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Directions (Q. 61-65): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.
61. He was a men of few words but was very intelligent and respected by one and all
(a) man of few words (b) man of few wordings (c) men of few word (d) man to few words (e) No correction required
62. She was feeling very asleepy today as she had not slept very well the previous night
(a) Very asleep (b) very sleeping (c) very sleepy (d) very sleep (e) No correction required
63. She waited with bated breath as the names of the top rankers were announced.
(a) As bated breathe (b) For beating breath (c) With beated breath (d) To beat breath (e) No correction required
64. As Veena got ready to leave for the exam her mother kissed her and wished her lucky
(a) Wish her luckily (b) Wishes her luck (c) Wishing her luckily (d) Wished her luck (e) No correction required
65. He was so tired that he could barely keeping his eyes open while driving
(a) Can barely keep (b) Could barely keep (c) Can bare keep (d) Could bear to keep (e) No correction required

Directions (Q. 66-70): In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

66. Even though the state has been witnessing (a)/ deaths on a daily basis, (b)/ it has not hindered (c)/ the festivity spirit of the people (d)/ All correct (e)

67. The player was arrested (a)/ for kicking and (b)/ punching a driver outside (c)/ a fast food outlet in the city (d)/ All correct (e)

68. The clever disciple had decided (a)/ to proved his skills by (b)/ reciting the holy (c)/ verse from the book (d)/ All correct (e)

69. In just one year Beena has gained (a)/ around eight kilograms and (b)/ doctors fear she might be prune (c)/ to heart related ailments (d)/ All correct (e)

70. On being threatened by the king’s servants (a)/ the poor gardener (b)/ blurted out that he had stolen (c)/ the jewels (d)/ All correct (e)

Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once, there (71) a rich businessman, who was smart and young. He was fond of gambling. One day, on a business tour, he was (72) for a game of gambling by a veteran gambler who was reputed as ‘invincible’ in the game. When the game was on, he noticed that his (73) had resorted to foul play by stealthily swallowing the dice and pretending it to be lost. This made the young man lose the game. The young man, however, thought of (74) a lesson to the other gambler. So, when he returned home he smeared the dice with poison and dried them carefully. Next day, he went to his opponent and (75) him for a fresh round of game. The other gambler again stealthily put the dice into his (76). But once again, he was detected by the young gambler, who swallowed is but poison and not the dice.” The cheat writhed in (77) as the poison took effect. As the young man did not have any (78) to kill the fellow gambler, he took out some antidote from his bag and made him drink, which induced vomiting. This (79) the other fellow. He came back to his senses and never (80) to deceive others in the game of dice.

71. (a) Danced (b) Lived (c) Placed (d) Is (e) Stayed
72. (a) Made (b) Crying (c) Told (d) Struck (e) Invited
73. (a) Opposite (b) Self (c) Man (d) Opponent (e) Play
74. (a) Predicting (b) Saying (c) Asking (d) Teaching (e) Making
75. (a) Slapped (b) Smelled (c) Challenged (d) Request (e) Killed
76. (a) Pocket (b) Throat (c) Sleeve (d) Board (e) Mouth
77. (a) Happiness (b) Pleasure (c) Pain (d) Room (e) Hurting
78. (a) Intention (b) Weapon (c) Where (d) Means (e) Body
79. (a) Sliced (b) Cured (c) Better (d) Killed (e) Slept
80. (a) Dared (b) Worried (c) Feared (d) Crossed (e) Decided

Part –III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 81-95): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
81. 630 ÷ 18 ÷ 5 =?
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 175 (e) None of these
82. 12 + 4 × 3 =?
(a) 28 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 26 (e) None of these
83. v (5378) × v (3360) ÷ v (360) =?
(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 225 (e) None of these
84. 8934 – 3257 + 481 = ? + 2578
(a) 6158 (b) 3580 (c) 3040 (d) 3400 (e) None of these
85. 8424 ÷ 135 × 6 = ?
(a) 124.8 (b) 249.6 (c) 374.4 (d) 274.4 (e) None of these
86. 12 × 3.5 – 8.5 × 3.2 = ?
(a) 14.8 (b) 18.4 (c) 69.2 (d) 16.8 (e) None of these
87. 23.56 + 134.44 + 4142.25 = ?
(a) 4302.25 (b) 4300.75 (c) 4301.25 (d) 4300.25 (e) None of these
88. 35% of 430 + ?% of 360 = 276.5
(a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 45 (d) 15 (e) None of these
89. v (675.001) + (4.005)³ = ?
(a) 84 (b) 86 (c) 90 (d) 94 (e) 87
90. 140% of 450 + 24% of 650 = ?
(a) 786 (b) 474 (c) 800 (d) 488 (e) None of these
91. The value of (.625 × .0729 x 28.9) / (.0017 x .025 x 8.1) is :
(a) 3825 (b) 3.825 (c) 38.25 (d) 3825 (e) None of these
92. (1/3) of (256/7) of (21/16) of (1/2) of ? = 3648
(a) 456 (b) 654 (c) 765 (d) 876 (e) None of these
93. [v(121×49) ]÷3.5 ×78 = ?2 + 35
(a) 39 (b) 49 (c) 51 (d) 41 (e) None of these
94. 2.03% of 1400 + 4.2% of 450 = ?
(a) 18.09 (b) 10.33 (c) 24.42 (d) 46.51 (e) None of these
95. 3960 ÷ 24 × 392 ÷ 14 = ?
(a) 4305 (b) 193 (c) 4620 (d) 2310 (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 96-100): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
96. 8, 39, 155, 464, ?
(a) 231 (b) 463 (c) 1391 (d) 927 (e) None of these
97. 4, 5, 14, 51, ?
(a) 158 (b) 156 (c) 260 (d) 208 (e) None of these
98. 7, 8, 17, 42, ?
(a) 67 (b) 78 (c) 91 (d) 106 (e) None of these
99. 5, 6, 15, 50, ?
(a) 207 (b) 157 (c) 155 (d) 205 (e) None of these
100. 729, 243, 81, 27, ?
(a) 18 (b) 9 (c) 3 (d) 15 (e) None of these
101. The ratio between the boys and girls in a class is 6:5 respectively. If 8 more boys join the class and two girls leave the class then the respective ratio becomes 11:7. What is the number of boys in the class now?
(a) 28 (b) 38 (c) 44 (d) 36 (e) None of these
102. Mohan purchased an article and sold it for Rs. 2817.50 and earned 15 percent profit on the cost price. What was the cost price of the article?
(a) Rs.2500 (b) Rs.2450 (c) Rs.2550 (d) Rs. 3315 (e) None of these
103. The difference between the average of three consecutive even numbers is 5. What is first even number?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d)Can’t be determined (e) None of these
104. Cost of 24 bats and 32 sticks is Rs. 5600. What is the price of 3 bats and 4 sticks?
(a) Rs.1400 (b) Rs.2800 (c) Rs. 700 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
105. A team of 8 persons joins in a shooting competition. The best marksman scored 85 points. If he had scored 92 points, the average score of team would have been 84.The number of points the team scored is:
(a) 645 (b) 665 (c) 588 (d) 672 (e) 652
106. A 160 metre long train running at a speed of 90 kmph crosses a platform in 18 seconds. What is the length of the platform in metres?
(a) 210 (b) 240 (c) 290 (d) 310 (e) None of these
107. 75% of a number is equal to four-fifth of another number. What is the ratio between the first number and the second number respectively?
(a) 16:15 (b) 15:14 (c) 5:6 (d) 15:16 (e) None of these
108. What will be the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs. 4000 at the end of two years?
(a) Rs. 10 (b) Rs. 20 (c) Rs. 25 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
109. The difference between the digits of a two digit number is 4 and the digit in the unit’s place is one-third of the digit in the tenth’s place. What is the two-digit number?
(a) 26 (b) 31 (c) 93 (d) 62 (e) Can’t be determined
110. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. What is the highest number?
(a) 32 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 34 (e) None of these
111. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3:4 respectively. Four years hence Q will be five years older than P. What is P’s present age?
(a) 15 years (b) 20 years (c) 25 years (d) Can’t be determined (e) None of these
112. Gaurav spends 40% of the amount he received from his father on hostel expenses, 20% on books and stationary and 50% of the remaining on transport. He saves Rs. 450 which is half the remaining amount after spending on hostel expenses, books et. And transport. How much money did he get from hs father?
(a) Rs.3000 (b) Rs.6000 (c) Rs.4500 (d) Can’t determined (e) None of these
113. 45% of a number is less than its 64% by 38. What is 20% of that number?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 10 (d) 60 (e) None of these
114. 12 Men can complete one-third of the work in 8 days. In how many days can 16 men complete that work?
(a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d)Can’t be determined (e) None of these
115. What is the average of the following set of numbers? 38, 92, 45, 25, 60
(a) 48 (b) 54 (c) 56 (d) 50 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below: Number of students in Five Disciplines of a college over the years

Discipline ?Year ? Arts Science Commerce Management  Agriculture
2001 240 358 275 215 314
2002 260 390 286 234 365
2003 275 374 265 269 336
2004 284 368 290 255 348
2005 296 415 272 284 326
2006 312 432 364 276 383
116. In which year the percentage change in the case of Agriculture discipline was highest from the previous year?
(a) 2002 (b) 2003 (c) 2004 (d) 2005 (e) 2006
117. What was approximate percentage increase in the number of students in Commerce discipline from 32003 to 2004?
(a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 9 (e) 22
118. In which year was the difference in number of students in Arts and Science exactly 130?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2004 (d) 2006 (e) None of these
119. The total number of students in Agriculture in 2001 and 2005 together was approximately what percent of number of students from the same discipline in 2002?
(a) 75 (b) 165 (c) 65 (d) 175 (e) 190
120. In which discipline was there a continuous increase in number of students over the given years?
(a) Science (b) Agriculture (c) Arts (d) Commerce (e) Management

Part- IV: Reasoning Ability

121. Q walked 20 meters towards West, took a left turn and walked West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres and again took a right turn and walked 20 meters. How far is Q now from the starting point?
(b) 40 metres (b) 50 meters (c) 80 meters (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
122. In a column of thirty boys, M is eight from the end and J is twelth from the front. If there are six boys between J and Q. How many boys are there between M and Q?
(b) 10 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
123. In a certain code, ‘3 4 5’ means ‘come and go’ and ‘5 9 7’ means ‘go back now’, what does’ mean in that code?
(b) back (b) now (c) back or now (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
124. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(b) 115 (b) 161 (c) 253 (d) 391 (e) 345
125. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters EVRA using each letter only one once in each word?
(b) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)More than three
126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(b) OMQ (b) HFJ (c) TPR (d) TRV (e) VTX
127. In a certain code GATHERS is written as NUHGRQD. How is SEALING written in that code?
(b)BFTKHMF (b)BFTKHMH (c) BFTMHFM (d) TFBKHMF (e) None of these
128. ‘SIDE’ is written as ‘DSIE’ and ‘ROAM’ is written as ‘AROM’ in the same way as ‘DUCK’ is written as ___?
(b) KDCU (b) KCUD (c) CDKU (d) CDUK (e) None of these
129. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 59126874 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order among them within the number?
(b) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)More than three
130. Each consonant in the word EXACTION is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the new letters are arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the rearrangement?
(b) N (b) F (c) J (d) S (e) None of these
131. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SERVITUDE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the word as in the English alphabet?
(b) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e)More than three

Directions (Q. 132-137): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which statements disregarding commonly known facts.

132. Statements:
Some nails are plates.
Some plates are disks.
All disks are mirrors.
All mirrors are tyres.
I. Some tyres are plates.
II. Some tyres are nails.
III. Some mirrors are plates.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) All I, II and III follow
(e) None of these

133. Statements:
Some windows are lakes.
Some lakes are forests.
Some forests are windows.
I. Some hills are windows.
II. Some curtains are lakes.
III. Some forests are windows.
(a) None follows
(b) Only follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only III follows
(e) Only I and III follow

134. Statements:
All tapes are branches.
Some branches are roads.
Some fruits are trees.
I. Some trees are tapes.
II. Some fruits are tapes.
III. Some fruits are branches.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only III follows
(e) Only II and III follows

135. Statements:
Some beads are chairs.
All chairs are trucks.
Some trucks are bricks.
All bricks are cars.
I. Some cars are chairs.
II. Some cars are trucks.
III. Some trucks are beads.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) All I, II and III follow
(e) None of these

136. Statements:
All flowers are houses.
All houses are tigers.
All tigers are goats.
Some goats are bullocks.
I. Some goats are flowers.
II. Some tigers are flowers.
III. Some bullocks are tigers.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All I, II and III follow
(e) None of these

137. Statements:
All shirts are suits.
No hat is suit.
All rings are bangles.
I. Some rings are hats.
II. Some bangles are suits.
III. No ring is hat.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only either I or III follows
(e) Only either I or III and II follow

Directions (Q. 138- 141): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
R 3 A M % D 1 B U J 2 @ © F I K E d W P 4 8 V Q 9 6 Y * 5

138. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the thirteenth from the left end?
(a) K (b) E (c) I (d) F (e) None of these
139. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) MDA (b) 6*9 (c) 4VP (d) FK@ (e) None of these
140. Which of the following is the twelfth to the right of the sixth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(a) E (b) 5 (c) @ (d) 2 (e) Non of these
141. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a constant and immediately followed by a symbol?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

Directions (Q. 142-145): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.

Letter: A R P M D E K Q Z F H K U W J
Digit/Symbol Code: © 7 8 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @ 6 d
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as ‘*’

(a)  19@87d (b) d9@87d (c) 19@871 (d)d9@871 (e) None of these
(a) ©%6d3@ (b) @%682@ (c) @%6d©3 (d)@%6d3© (e) None of these
(a) 8145$8 (b) 7145$8 (c) *145$* (d)8145$7 (e) None of these
(a) 29©842 (b) 39©842 (c)39©843 (d)29©843 (e) None of these

Directions (Q. 146-150): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, *, $ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true? Give answer
(a) if only Conclusion I is true. (b) if only Conclusion II is true.
(c) if either Conclusion I or II is true. (d) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) if both Conclusion I and II is true.

146. Statements:

H @ K, K % D, D $ B


I. H @ B       II. B @ K

147. Statements:

M % F, F © R, R * K


I. K © F        II. M * R

148. Statements:

A * F, H @ F, M © H


I. M © F         II. A * H

149. Statements:

R © M, M * W, T @ W


I. T © M         II. T © R

150. Statements:

J © K, K @ D, D $ F


I. F * K            II. F $ K

Directions (Q. 151-155): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, M, P, J, H, D and K are seven students of a school. They study in Std. III, IV and V with atleast two in any one standard. Each of them has different choice of colour from blue, red, green, yellow, black, white and brown, not necessarily in the same order. M students in Std. IV with only D who likes red colour. A studies in Std. V and does not like either blue or green. H does not study in Std. C and likes yellow colour. P and J study in the same std. but not with A. None of those who study in Std. III likes white. The one who likes black studies in Std. IV. J likes brown colour. P does not like colour.

151. Which colour does P like?
(a) Green (b) Blue (c) Blue or Green (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
152. Which of the following combination is definitely correct?
(a) III-H-Black (b) IV-K-Blue (c) V-A-Blue (d) IV-D-Green (e) All are incorrect
153. Which colour does A like?
(a) Brown (b) Red (c) White (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
154. Which colour does K like?
(a) Green (b) Blue (c) Blue or Green (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these
155. In which std. do three of then study?
(a) III only (b) V only (c) III or V only (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these

Directions (156-160) : Study the following instructions carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

In making decision about important questions, it is desirable that a candidate is able to distinguish between strong and weak arguments so far as they related to the questions weak arguments may not be directly related to the trivial aspect of the question. Each questions below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak

(a) If only Argument I is strong

(b) If only Arguments II is strong

(c) If either I or II is strong

(d) If neither I nor II is strong

(e) If both I and II are strong

156. Statements:

Should the vehicles older than 15 yr be barred in metros in India?


I. Yes, this is a significant step to lower the pollution level in metros.

II. No, It will be very difficult for vehicle owners to shift to other parts of the country.

157. statement

Should persons convicted of criminal offences in the past be allowed to contest elections in India?


I. No, such persons cannot serve the cause of the people and country.

II. Yes, it is democracy – Let people decide whom to vote.

158. Statements:

Should government close down loss- making public sector enterprises?


I. No, all employees will lose their jobs, security and earning, what would they do?

II. Yes, in a competitive words, the rules is survival of the fifths.

159. Statements

Should the prestigious people who has committed crime, unmovinglly be met with special treatment?


I. Yes, the prestigious people don’t commit crime intentionally.

II. No, it is our policy that everybody is equal before the law.

160. Statements:

Should India have no military force at all ?


I. No, Other countries in the words do not believe in non-violence.

II. Yes, many Indians believe in non-violence.

Part – V: Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge

161. The taskbar is located ___
(a) on the Start menu (b) at the bottom of the screen (c) on the Quick Launch toolbar (d) at the top of the screen (e) None of these
162. Another word for software is ___
(a) input (b) output (c) program (d) system (e) None of these
163. Generally, you access the Recycle Bin through as icon located ___
(a) on the desktop (b) on the hard drive (c) on the shortcut menu (d) in the Properties dialog box (e) None of these
164. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s ___
(a) features (b) format (c) pagination (d) grid (e) None of these
165. Where is data saved permanently?
(a) Memory (b) Storage (c) CPU (d) Printer (e) None of these
166. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
(a) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium (b) Every file has a filename (c) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the file’s contents (d) Files usually contain data (e) None of these
167. What type of computer could be found in a digital watch?
(a) Mainframe computer (b)Supercomputer (c) Embedded computer (d) Notebook computer (e) None of these
168. Which is not a basic function of a computer?
(a) Copy text (b) Accept input (c) Process data (d) Store data (e) None of these
169. The ___ is the box that houses the most important parts of a computer system.
(a) software (b) hardware (c) data (d)information (e) None of these
170. A ___ is a collection of information saved as a unit.
(a) folder (b) file (c) path (d) file extension (e) None of these
171. Peripheral devices such as printers and monitors are considered to be ___
(a) hardware (b) software (c) data (d)information (e) None of these
172. Input, output , and processing devices grouped together represent a(n) ___
(a) mobile device (b) information processing cycle (c) circuit board (d) computer system (e) None of these
173. Most Web sites have a main page, the ___, which acts as a doorway to the rest of the Web site pages.
(a) search engine (b) homepage (c) browser (d) URL (e) None of these
174. Which of the following system components is the brain of the computer?
(a) Circuit board (b) CPU (c) Memory (d) Network card (e) None of these
175. A ___ shares hardware, software, and date among authorized users.
(a) network (b) protocol (c) hyperlink (d) transmitter (e) None of these
176. Good marketing requires one of the following ____
(a) proper planning (b) good team work (c) good communication skills (d) knowledge of products (e) All of these
177. The main directory of a disk is called the ___ directory.
(a) root (b) sub (c) folder (d) network (e) None of these
178. Marketing is a ___
(a) one day effort (b) team effort (c) one man effort (d) All of these (e) None of these
179. Service Marketing is the same as ___
(a) Transaction Marketing (b) Relationship Marketing (c) Internal Marketing (d) Outdoor Marketing (e) All of these
180. Marketing is influenced by ___
(a) product demand (b) public taste (c) buyer behavior (d) brand image (e) All of these
181. Antivirus software is an example of ___
(a) business software (b) an operating system (c) a security utility (d) an office suite (e) None of these
182. Marketing is banks is a necessary today, due to ___
(a)Liberalisation (b)Nationalisation (c) Fashion (d)Urbanisation (e) Marketing in banks is not necessary, as banking in India is more than 200 years old
183. The main sytem board of a computer is called the ___
(a) integrated circuit (b) motherboard (c) processor (d) microship (e) None of these
184. A(n) __ backup contains a copy of every program, data, and system file of a computer.
(a) restoration (b) bootstrap (c) differential (d) full (e) None of these
185. Marketing helps in ___
(a) booting production (b) getting new clients (c) interacting with strangers (d) All of these (e) None of these
186. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called ___
(a) cache (b) instruction (c) source code (d) word size (e) None of these
187. Marketing of services is resorted in ___
(a)manufacturing concerns (b) Insurance business (c) hotels (d)Only(a)and(b) (e) Only (b) and (c)
188. Marketing is the art of ___
(a) buying more (b) paying more (c) selling more (d) talking more (e) Only (a) and (b)
189. Market Share means ___
(a) Share market (b) Share prices (c) IPOs (d) Scope for marketing (e) Share of business among peers
190. A DSA (Direct Selling agent) is one ___
(a) who sells through the Internet (b) who sells direct to the client (c) who works on the bank counter (d) who works in back office set up (e) None of these
191. Internal marketing means ___
(a) Marketing to self (b) Marketing to family members (c) Marketing to the staff members (d) Marketing inside India (e) Marketing outside India
192. A good and effective DSA should ___
(a) Copy the competitor company (b) Criticize the competitor company (c) Join the competitor company (d) Be passive (e) Be more effective than the competitor company
193. A DSA helps in ___
(a) Boosting direct sales (b) Boosting sales through the net (c)Strengthening Indirect Marketing (d)Strengthening Telemarketing (e) All of these
194. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Marketing is not required due to globalization (b) Marketing causes higher expenses and losses (c) Marketing is not required in profit-making companies (d) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees (e)Marketing is a waste of time in established companies
195. A true marketing mindset requires ___
(a) Control mindset (b) Command mindset (c) Passive mindset (d) Active mindset (e) Inert mindset
196. Modern styles of marketing are ___
(a) telemarketing (b) web marketing (c)advertisements on the net (d) e-mails (e) All of these
197. Selling is ___
(a) Different from Marketing (b) A sub-function of Marketing (c) Same as Marketing (d) More than Marketing (e) None of these
198. Good selling skills involve ___
(a) Patience (b) Perseverance (c) Empathy (d) Knowledge (e) All of these
199. A ‘Lead in marketing jargon, means ___
(a) a metal (b) a leash (c) a likely consumer (d) a team leader (e) None of these
200. Innovation means ___
(a) Inspiration (b) Enthusiam (c) Compensation (d) Creativity (e) All of these

Answer key:

1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(a)
9.(e) 10.(a) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(e) 15.(e) 16.(a)
17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(e) 20.(a) 21.(c) 22.(a) 23.(a) 24.(d)
25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(d) 28.(a) 29.(c) 30.(d) 31.(d) 32.(c)
33.(b) 34.(e) 35.(b) 36.(b) 37.(c) 38.(c) 39.(e) 40.(e)
41.(d) 42.(e) 43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(c) 46.(b) 47.(c) 48.(e)
49.(d) 50.(a) 51.(e) 52.(b) 53.(a) 54.(c) 55.(d) 56.(c)
57.(e) 58.(d) 59.(a) 60.(b) 61.(a) 62.(c) 63.(e) 64.(d)
65.(b) 66.(d) 67.(a) 68.(b) 69.(d) 70.(e) 71.(b) 72.(e)
73.(d) 74.(d) 75.(c) 76.(e) 77.(c) 78.(a) 79.(b) 80.(a)
81.(a) 82.(c) 83.(d) 84.(b) 85.(c) 86.(a) 87.(d) 88.(e)
89.(c) 90.(a) 91.(d) 92.(a) 93.(d) 94.(e) 95.(c) 96.(d)
97.(e) 98.(b) 99.(a) 100.(b) 101.(c) 102.(b) 103.(d) 104.(c)
105.(b) 106.(c) 107.(a) 108.(a) 109.(d) 110.(c) 111.(a) 112.(c)
113.(b) 114.(a) 115.(e) 116.(e) 117.(d) 118.(b) 119.(d) 120.(c)
121.(a) 122.(d) 123.(c) 124.(e) 125.(b) 126.(c) 127.(b) 128.(d)
129.(d) 130.(e) 131.(e) 132.(b) 133.(a) 134.(d) 135.(c) 136.(a)
137.(e) 138.(a) 139.(d) 140.(b) 141.(b) 142.(c) 143.(d) 144.(a)
145.(e) 146.(b) 147.(d) 148.(e) 149.(a) 150.(c) 151.(a) 152.(e)
153.(c) 154.(b) 155.(a) 156.(a) 157.(a) 158.(a) 159.(b) 160.(a)
161.(b) 162.(c) 163.(a) 164.(c) 165.(b) 166.(c) 167.(d) 168.(a)
169.(d) 170.(b) 171.(a) 172.(d) 173.(b) 174.(b) 175.(a) 176.(e)
177.(a) 178.(b) 179.(e) 180.(e) 181.(c) 182.(a) 183.(b) 184.(d)
185.(d) 186.(c) 187.(e) 188.(c) 189.(e) 190.(d) 191.(d) 192.(d)
193.(e) 194.(d) 195.(d) 196.(e) 197.(b) 198.(e) 199.(c) 200.(d)

Enroll yourself for a demo class

Book a demo class today