A candidate must be a citizen of India in order to apply for this post

Age :

Between 18 and 28 years.

Relaxation in the Upper Age Limit:

Upper age limit will be relaxed as under :

Sr. No. Category Relaxation in Age
(i) Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe (SC / ST) By 5 years, i.e. up to 33 years
(ii) Other Backward Classes (OBC) By 3 years, i.e. up to 31 years
(iii) Persons with Disabilities (PWD) By 10 years (GEN) 13 years (OBC) & 15 years(SC/ST)
(iv) Ex-Servicemen To the extent of service rendered by them in Armed Forces plus an additional period of 3years subject to maximum of 50 years.
(v) Widows/divorced women/ women judicially separated who are not re-married By 10 years
(vi) Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir between 1st January, 1980 and 31st December, 1989. By 5 years


NOTE: Cumulative Age Relaxation will not be available either under the above items or in combination with any other items.

Candidates seeking age relaxation are required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of interview.


Educational Qualifications :

i) At least a Bachelor’s Degree in any disciplinewith a minimum of 50% marks (pass class for SC/ST/PWD candidates) in the aggregate and the knowledge of word processing on PC.

ii) A candidate belonging to Ex-servicemen category should either be a graduate from a recognized University or should have passed the matriculation or its equivalent examination of the Armed Forces and rendered at least 15 years of defence service.

iii) Candidates applying for post in a particular state should be proficient in the language of the state i.e. know to read, write, speak and understand the language


Selection will be through Online Examination and Interview.


Online Examination:

The Online Examination will be for 200 marks


Sr. No. Name of Tests (Objective) No of Questions Maximum Marks Total Time
1 Test of Reasoning 40 40 2 Hours
2 Test of English Language 40 40
3 Test of Numerical Ability 40 40
4 Test of General Awareness 40 40
5 Test of Computer Knowledge 40 40
Total 200 200


Difficulty Level:

Easy to Moderate (IBPS Clerk Level questions will be asked for this exam.

i) The above tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi.

ii) A candidate has to qualify in each part of the Objective test separately. There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests. 1/4th marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates will have to pass in each of the objective tests. (Cut off marks will be decided by the bank)

iii) Final selection will be on the basis of candidate’s performance in the written examination and interview taken together in order of merit.


Numerical Ability: Number Systems, Simplification, Number series, Missing/Wrong Number, Ratio and Proportion, Average, Ages, Mixture and Allegation, Pipes and Cisterns, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Simple & Compound Interest, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Areas and Volumes, Permutations and combinations, Probability.

Data Interpretation: – Have a glance of Pie charts, Bar graphs, Line graphs. Mixed graphs, Case study, Data tables


Logical Reasoning / General Intelligence: Verbal Reasoning: Analytical Reasoning, Distance Test,

Seating Arrangement, Eligibility test (Decision making), Analogy, Classification, Coding Decoding, Odd Man out, Series, Mathematical Operation, Blood Relationships, Alphabet test, Data Sufficiency, Syllogism, Statements

Non Verbal Reasoning: Have a glance of Series (Non Verbal), Mirror/water image, Classification (Non Verbal), Analogy (Non Verbal)


General English: Synonyms, Antonyms, Vocabulary, Spotting errors, Idioms and Phrases, Sentence Improvement, Sentence Rearrangement, substitution, Cloze Tests, Inappropriate Usage of Words, Sentence Correction, English Comprehension
General Awareness: (Give preference to RBI Related banking topics)

Banking terms, History of RBI and Policies, Social Function of Banks, Schemes, World Organizations, National and International Current affairs, Important Events, New Appointments, Books and Authors, Prizes and Awards, Famous Places and persons, Days to remember.


Computer Knowledge: Basic computer fundamentals, History and Future of Computers, Basic Software & Hardware and their functionalities, Computer Operations / Shortcut Keys, Networking, abbreviation used in computers, Microsoft-office, Computer Languages, Internet.


Blue Print
Year   2012 Dec-11 2011
Topics Sub topic    
Numerical Ability Square Roots, Cube roots 2 2
Number System 3 6
Surds & indices 1 1
Fraction 4 3
Time & Distance 2 2
Ratio & Proportion 1 1
Chain rule 1
Time & Work
simplification 12 12
Average 1 3
Clock 1 1
Pipes & Cisterns
Profit & Loss 2 1
Percentage 6 5
Simple & compound Interest 2 2
Number series 6 5
Area 4 4
Age 1 1
Train 1 1



Time and distance
Ratio and Proportion
Number System
Ratio & Proportion
Profit & loss
Number System
Ratio & proportion
Ratio & proportion
Number System
Number System
Ratio & Proportion
Verbal Reasoning Analogy
Letter Series 1
Alphabet Test 2 1
Number Series 1 1
Number Ranking
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles 5
Sequential output Tracing 5
Seating Arrangement 5 5
Analytical Reasoning 5 5
Blood Relations
Coding & Decoding 2 7
Deriving Conclusions 5
Data sufficiency 5 5
Directions test
Mathematical Operations 5 5
Syllogisms 5 5
Non-verbal Reasoning Analogy
Completion of series 10 10
Complete & Incomplete pattern
Cubes & Dice
English Spotting Errors 10 10
Synonyms 3 3
Antonyms 2 2
Idioms & Phrase
Sentence Improvement 5 5
Sentence Rearrangement
Comprehension 10 10
Sentence Completion 5 5
Spelling Correction 5 5
Cloze Test 10 10
General Knowledge Awards 2 3
Banking 18 15
Books & Authors 1 3
Constitution of India 7 7
Abbreviations 3
Constitution of India – Current Affairs
Famous Place 2 3
Days to remember 1 1
Indian Economy 4 4
Sports 4 5
Miscellaneous 3 4
General Science 1
Famous Persons 4 4
Agriculture 1
Computer Knowledge
Computer Knowledge 50 50



Part-I: Reasoning

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters PCYO, using all the letters, but each letter only once in each word?

(a) None         (b) One          (c) Two          (d) Three        (e) More than three

2. The positions of the first and fifth letter of the word SUITABLE are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second and sixth letter, third and seventh letter, and fourth and eighth letter are interchanged. In the New arrangement, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is third from the left end and the alphabet which is second from the right end?

(a) None         (b) One          (c) Two          (d) Four          (e) More than four

Directions (3-4) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Among A,B,C,D and E, each scored different marks in an examination. Only one person scored more than C. E scored more than A but less than D. D did not score the highest marks. The one who scored the second lowest scored 71% marks. C scored 92% marks.

3. Who among the following is most likely to have scored 87% marks?

(a) A                 (b) B             (c) D                 (d) E               (e) Either A or D

4. Which of the following percentages is most likely to be B’s percentage in the exam?

(a) 68%           (b) 71%          (c) 84%          (d) 76%          (e) 97%

Directions (Q.5-7) : The following questions are based on the alphabetical series given below.


5. What will come in place of question (?) mark in the following series based on the above alphabetical series? N PO BDE

(a) UKR           (b) SRKU        (c) RKUF                (d) QSRK        (e) FUK

6. If in a certain code, ‘BIND’ is coded as ‘CLGB’ and ‘HELD’ is coded as ‘FDJB’ based on the series given above How will ‘FORK’ be coded in the same code language?

(a) HGKU        (b) UPKR        (c) KPSR         (d) UPSR            (e) UGSR

7. ‘HC’ is related to ‘KQ’ in a certain way. Similarly, ‘OG’ is related to ‘AB’ in the same way. To which of the following is ‘RK’ related following the same pattern?

(a) TJ               (b) SI                (c) TI               (d) HD                 (e) IM

8. Each vowel of the word SAVOURY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. If the new alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right) , which of the following will be fifth from the right?

(a) U                       (b) R                (c) Q                  (d) P                  (e) X

9. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word PACKETS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) One               (b) Two            (c) Three              (d) Four             (e) More than four

10. Point P is 10m to the West of Point A. Point B is 2m to the South of Point P. Point Q is 6m to the East of Point B. Point C is 2m to the North of Point Q. Which of the following three points fall in a straight line?

(a) A,C,P             (b) B, C,P         (c) Q,C,A        (d) A,B,Q         (e) A,B,C

Directions (11-15) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are following by two conclusions.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(c) if either conclusion I or II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(e) if both conclusions I and II are true

11. Statement:

H =I = J > K= L


I. K < H        II. L = I

12. Statement:

S > C = O; P < C


I. O < P        II. S > P

13. Statements:

A = B = C; A > R


I. B > R       II. R < C

14. Statements:

D > E = F; J < F


I. D > J        II. E < J

15. Statements:

P < Q > T; R = Q


I. R > P       II. T < R

Directions (Q. 16-20) : Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight People are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A,B C and D are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given section arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits second to left of Q. A faces the immediate neighbour of S. Only one person sits between A and C. P does not face A. B is not an immediate neighbour of A.

16. Which of the following is true regarding D?

(a) D sits an one of the extreme ends of the line.

(b) A sits on the immediate left D.

(c) Q faces D.

(d) C is an immediate neighbour of D.

(e) No immediate neighbour of D faces R.

17. Who among the following faces C?

(a) P                   (b) Q               (c) R                     (d) S                   (e) Cannot be determined

18. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of the person who faces C?

(a) P                  (b) Q                (c) R                    (d) S                   (e) Cannot be determined

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) A                 (b) Q                 (c) R                    (d) B                  (e) S

20. Who among the following faces R?

(a) A                (b) B                  (c) C                    (d) D                  (e) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 21-26) : Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code, ‘time and money’, is written as ‘ma jo ki’, ‘manage time well’ is written as ‘pa ru jo’, ‘earn more money’ is written as ‘zi ha ma’ and ‘earn well enough’ is written as ‘si ru ha’.

21. What is the code for ‘earn’?
(a) si (b) ru (c) ha (d) ma (e) Cannot be determined
22. Which of the following represents ‘more time’?
(a) Pa jo (b) zi ki (c) ma ki (d) si jo (e) jo zi
23. What is the code for ‘manage’?
(a) ru (b) pa (c) jo (d) ha (e) Either ‘jo’ or ‘ru’
24. Which of the following may represent’ ‘money matters’?
(a) ki to (b) ma pa (c) fi ma (d) ha ma (e) ma jo
What does ‘ru’ stand for? 25
(a) well (b) manage (c) time (d) enough (e) Either ‘time’ or ‘enough’
26. Which of the following may represent ‘good enough’?
(a) ru si (b) da ha (c) si pa (d) si da (e) ki ru

Directions (Q. 27-33) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – are sitting around a circle facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. D sits third to left of A. A is an immediate neighbour of the both F and H. Only one person sits between C and F. B is not an immediate neighbour of D. Only one person sits between B and G.

27. A is related to G in a certain way. Similarly, C is related to H, according to the given seating arrangement. Who among the following is related to F, following the same pattern?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
28. Who among the following sits second to the right of C?
(a) F (b) A (c) D (d) G (e) H
29. What is the position of C with respect to the position of E?
(a) Third to the left (b) Second to the left (c) Immediate right (d) Third to the right (e) Second to the right
30. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(a) A sits on the immediate left of H. (b) B sits exactly between C and G. (c) F sits second to the right of C. (d) E is an immediate neighbour of C. (e) None is true
31. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of G?
(a) A, C (b) C, D (c) D, H (d) D, E (e) C,F
32. Who among the following sits exactly between C and F?
(a) A (b) D (c) G (d) H (e) B
33. Starting from A, if all the friends are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the positions of how many (excluding A) will remain unchanged?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four

Directions (34-37) : In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer:

(a) if only conclusion I follows.

(b) if only conclusion II follows.

(c) if either conclusion I or II follows.

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(e) if both conclusions I and II follow.

34. Statements:

All exams are tests.

No test is a question.


I. At least some exams are questions.

II. No exam is a question.

35. Statements:

No bangle is an earring.

Some earrings are rings.


I. No ring is a bangle.

II. Some rings are definitely not earnings.

36. Statements:

Some banks are colleges.

All colleges are schools.


I. At least some banks are schools.

II. All schools are colleges.

37. Statements:

All rivers are lakes.

All lakes are oceans.


I. All rivers are oceans.

II. At least some oceans are lakes.

Directions (38-40) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d) if the data neither in statement I nor in statement II are sufficient to answer the question statement

(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

38. On which date of the month was Parul born?

I. Her mother correctly remembers that she was born after 15th but before 21st of April.

II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after 18th but before 24th of April.

39. How many brothers does Meghna have? Meghna is a girl.

I. Kishore, the father of Meghna, is the only child of Kamal. Kamal has only two grandchildren.

II. Jyoti, the daughter-in-law of Kamal, has son and a daughter.

40. Among P, Q, R, S and T, sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

I. S sits third to the left of Q. S is an immediate neighbour of both P and T.

II. Two people sit between T and R. R does not sit at either of the extreme ends. P sits second to the right of T.

Part – II: English

Directions (Q. 41-45) : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

41. The government is planning to set ….. family welfare centres for slums in cities.
(a) another (b) with (c) for (d) in (e) up
42. Economic independence and education have women more assertive.
(a) prepared (b) made (c) marked (d) resulted (e) adjusted
43. In the modern world, the ……… of change and scientific innovation is unusually rapid.
(a) supplies (b) context (c) pace (d) fantasy (e) requirement
44. The unprecedented economic growth of china has ……… worldwide attention.
(a) perceived (b) proposed (c) neither (d) astonished (e) attracted
45. Each business activity ……….. employment to people who would otherwise be unemployed.
(a) taking (b) finds (c) creates (d) provides (e) given

Directions (Q. 46-55) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate while answering some of the questions.

The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially so, in the teaching – learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that allows you to look at the world from someone else’s perspective. Making other people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the first step to better communication – the primary goal of all true educators. Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree, how one communicates determines one’s effectiveness as a teacher. A study on communication styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through voice intonation and 55% through body language. Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages.

The process of communication is composed of three elements: the source (sender, speaker, transmitter or instructor) , the symbol used in composing and transmitting of the message (words or signs) , and the receiver (listener, reader or student) . The three elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It’s also about receiving information the others are sending to you, with as little distortion as possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it’s a process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or misinterpreted by the reciepent. When this isn’t detected it can cause tremendous confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity. Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in the teaching profession. Carefully planned and skillfully delivered messages can issue invitations to students that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others. Effective communication is essential for a wellrun classroom. A teacher who is able to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport. Although this sounds simple and obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying something out loud to a student. They must also realise that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

Directions (46-47) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Abundant

(a) Small                                (b) Little                 (c) False                 (d) Sufficient             (e) Rare

47. Muddled

(a) Skillfully organised       (b) Strongly controlled         (c) Clearly conveyed

(d) Isolated                            (e) Complicated

Directions (48-50) : Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. Sounds

(a) Seems                    (b) Corrects           (c) Noises            (d) Takes                    (e) Silences.

49. Affinity

(a) Partnership           (b) Partiality          (c) Weakness     (d) Compatibility      (e) Discord

50. Degree

(a) Extent                     (b) Goal                   (c) Affect              (d) Situation              (e) Direction

51. Which of the following is/are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly

(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity

(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.

(a) Only (A) and (C)                  (b) Only  (B)                                 (c) Only (A)

(d) Only (C)                                 (e) Only (B) and (C)

52. Which of the following is true about ‘rapport’ as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.

(B) It is based on understanding of other people’s frame of reference.

(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.

(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.

(a) Only (A) and (B)                    (b) Only (B) and (D)       (c) Only (A) , (B) and (D)

(d) Only (A) , (B) and (C)           (e) All are true

53. Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in student as per the passage?

(a) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within the lecture hours.

(b) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.

(c) To realise hat all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

(d) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.

(e) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

54. Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the passage?

(a) Source, Signs and Students

(b) Source, Sender and Speaker

(c) Signs, Words and Students

(d) Instructor, Listener and Reader

(e) Transmitter, Students and Receiver

55. Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?

(a) The body language and gestures account for 38% of communication and outweighs the voice intonation.

(b) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone and body language.

(c) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and outweighs the body language.

(d) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our tone and body language.

(e) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty per cent interpersonal for communication skills.

Directions (Q. 56-65) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e) . (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

56. The economic disparity (a) / has grown rapid in(b) / the era of globalisation(c) / and free market forces(d) / No error(e)

57. Research shows that people (a) / is more sensitive to perceiving (b) / messages that are consistent (c) / with their opinions and attitudes. (d) / No error (e)

58. Many poverty alleviation schemes (a) / are not applicable of (b) / slum dwellers in metro cities (c) / as they are above the poverty line(d) / No error (e)

59. Rather than considering it’s (a) / human capital as a drain on (b) / resources, India needs to (c) / resource develop its into a huge opportunity. (d) / No error (e)

60. The European nations have (a) / become one of the (b) / favorite destinations of the Indian students (c) / seek specialised Knowledge and training. (d) / No error (e)

61. If a credit card bill (a) / is paid in full and (b) / on time, none finance (c) / charges are levied. (d) / No error (e)

62. Training have a (a) / positive effect on (b) / development of various (c) / skills and abilities. (d) / No error (e)

63. Lack of ability to (a) / read or write is just one of (b) / the all barriers that keep (c) / the poor people under developed. (d) / No error (e)

64. Science and technology have (a) / become dominant factors (b) / affecting our economic, cultural (c) / and spiritual development. (d) / No error (e)

65. A social business sells products (a) / at prices that make it Self- sustaining, pays (b) / no dividends and reinvestment (c) / the profits in the business. (d) / No error (e)

Directions (Q.66-75) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The latest technology (66) put to use or about to arrive in market must be (67) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an (68) effect on business. Valve radio’s gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital equipment. Business has (69) the same but the technology has kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased (70) so did the use of its material and consequently its price. The traditional flour mills are losing business (71) customers now buy flour (72) from the market. As a result of this, the business is (73) Following the same lines as technology, the social trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken (74) by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also the technology and plan in (75) with these to ensure the success of his endeavour.

66. (a) to (b) needed (c) decided (d) besides (e) being
67. (a) hoped (b) welcome (c) released (d) Known (e) aware
68. (a) approximate (b) huge (c) uniform (d) excellence (e) enormous
69. (a) maintained (b) remained (c) often (d) mentioned (e) become
70. (a) mainly (b) and (c) how (d) also (e) some
71. (a) reason (b) due (c) young (d) as (e) old
72. (a) knowingly (b) ease (c) cheap (d) directly (e) forcefully
73. (a) shrinking (b) blooming (c) returned (d) same (e) small
74. (a) against (b) to (c) over (d) up (e) for
75. (a) lines (b) relativity (c) accordance (d) proper (e) toning

Directions (76-80) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) and (E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below.

(A) Understandably, the newly married woman herself wants to spend more time with the family.

(B) They also worry that she might not be able to defend herself in case of trouble.

(C) Once married, the in-law exert a lot of pressure for similar cause of security.

(D) Initially, the family does not want the “decent” girl going all around.

(E) Retaining female workers at door-to-door sales jobs is just as hard as ever.

76. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E (b) B (c) D (d) C (e) A
77. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) E
78. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) D (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) A
79. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C (b) A (c) E (d) D (e) B
80. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B (b) D (c) C (d) A (e) E

Part-  III: Aptitude

Directions (81-85) What will come in the place of Question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. (5 × 7) % of (34 × 55) + 456.60 = 699.1 + ?

(a) 412                (b) 422                (c) 418                  (d) 428               (e) None of these

82. 14 × 627 ÷ v1089 = (?)3 + 141

(a) 5v5               (b) (125)3            (c)25                      (d) 5                   (e) None of these


(a) 2                    (b) 8                     (c) 512                  (d) 324                (e) None of these

84. (80 × 0.40)3 ÷ (40 × 1.6)3 × (128)3 = (2)? + 7

(a) 25                (b) 11                      (c) 12                    (d) 18                   (e) None of these

85. (v7 + 11)2 = (?)1/3 + 2v847 + 122

(a) 36 + 44v7         (b) 6             (c) 216                     (d) 37                 (e) None of these

D.(86-90): what approximate value should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions? (note: you are not expected to calculate the exact value)

86. 193.999 + 228.008 + ? + 422.005 = 1168.01
(a) 196 (b) 324 (c) 484 (d) 226 (e) 168
87. image001
(a) 50 (b) 30 (c) 110 (d) 70 (e) 20
88. 888888 ÷ 88 ÷ 8 = ?
(a) 1263 (b) 70600 (c) 1526 (d) 80800 (e) 1047
89. 27.8 × 28.74 × 17.3 = ?
(a) 12546 (b) 10228 (c) 13822 (d) 14995 (e) 15183
90. 1333.906 ÷ 2.103 × 5.9306 + 12.063 = ?
(a) 6063 (b) 10083 (c) 2826 (d) 5630 (e) 4041
D.(91-95): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following number series?
91. 28, 33, 31, 36, 34, ?
(a) 37 (b) 39 (c) 29 (d) 35 (e) None of these
92. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143
(a) 27 (b) 39 (c) 29 (d) 35 (e) None of these
93. 3, 28, 4, 65, 5, 126, 6, ?
(a) 215 (b) 216 (c) 217 (d) 218 (e) None of these
94. 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?
(a) 1135 (b) 1288 (c) 316 (d) 2254 (e) None of these
95. 7, 15, 32, ?, 138
(a) 70 (b) 65 (c) 76 (d) 57 (e) None of these
96. 12 men alone can complete a piece of work in six days, whereas 10 men and 21 women take three days to complete the same piece of work. In how many days can 12 women alone complete the same piece of work?
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 8 (e) None of these
97. The owner of an electronic store charges his customer 11% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,33,200 for an LED TV, what was the original price of the TV?
(a) Rs. 1,20,000 (b) Rs. 1,14,500 (c) Rs. 1,22,500 (d) Rs. 1,18,000 (e) None of these
98. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their ages is 16 : 3. What is the age of the daughter?
(a) 9 years (b) 3 years (c) 12 years (d) 6 years (e) None of these
99. Ram invested a sum of Rs. 2000 with a financing company at 12 % per annum for 2 yr. The interest at the end of the period received by Ram is
(a) Rs. 560  (b) Rs. 840  (c) Rs. 480  (d) Rs. 380  (e) None of these
100. A car covers a certain distance in three hours at the speed of 124 Km/hr. What is the average speed of a truck which travels a distance of 120 Km less than the car in the same time?
(a) 88 km/hr (b) 84 km/hr (c) 78 km/hr (d) 73 km/hr (e) None of these
101. The cost of four calculators and two stencils is Rs. 6,200 what is the cost of ten calculators and five stencils ?
(a) Rs. 15,500 (b) Rs. 14,875 (c) Rs. 16,200 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None
102. Find the average of the following set of scores: 214, 351, 109, 333, 752, 614, 456, 547
(a) 482 (b) 428 (c) 444 (d) 424 (e) None of these
103. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D is 54. What is the product of A and C?
(a) 2907 (b) 2805 (c) 2703 (d) 2915 (e) None of these
104. The sum of 55% of a number and 40% of the same number is 180.5. What is 80% of that number?
(a) 134 (b) 152 (c) 148 (d) 166 (e) None of these
105. There are 950 employees in an organisation, out of which 28% got promoted. Find the number of employees who got promoted.
(a) 226 (b) 256 (c) 266 (d) 216 (e) None of these
106. What is the least number to be added to 3000 to make it a perfect square?
(a) 191 (b) 136 (c) 25 (d) 84 (e) None of these
107. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 7,640 at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a. after two years?
(a) Rs. 2,634.9 (b) Rs. 2,643.9 (c) Rs. 2,364.9 (d) Rs. 2,463.9 (e) None of these
108. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 874 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(a) 1450 (b) 1640 (c) 1500 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
109. A juice centre requires 35 dozen guavas for 28 days. How many dozen guavas will it require for 36 days?
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 40 (d) 45 (e) None of these
110. Mohan sold an item for Rs. 4,510 and incurred a loss of 45%. At what price should he have sold the item to have earned a profit of 45%?
(a) Rs. 10,900 (b) Rs. 12,620 (c) Rs. 11,890 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None
111. In how many different ways can the letter of the word INHALE be arranged?
(a) 720 (b) 360 (c) 120  (d) 650  (e) None of these
112. What would be the circumference of a circle whose area is 745.36 sq cm?
(a) 94.4 cm (b) 88.8 cm (c) 96.3 cm (d) 87.4 cm (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 113-115) : What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
113. 5, 15, 35, 75, 155, (?)
(a) 295 (b) 315 (c) 275 (d) 305 (e) None of these
114. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, (?)
(a) 2160 (b) 1800 (c) 2520 (d) 1440 (e) None of these
115. 688, 472, 347, 283, 256, (?)
(a) 236 (b) 229 (c) 255 (d) 248 (e) None of these

Part -IV: General Awareness

121. USA has asked India to reduce its dependence on crude oil supply from which of the following countries which is also a member of OPEC?
(a) Venezuela (b) Iraq (c) Libya (d) Iran (e) Nigeria
122. Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be provided to the poor people to bring them into the network of financial inclusion?
(a) Insurance for life (b) Investment plan for future (c) Pension for old age (d) A bank account where he/she can save small amount (e) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalisation in case of need
123. Who among the following is the president of a country at present?
(a) Rupert Murdoch (b) Ban ki-moon (c) Yoshihiko Noda (d) Nicolas Sarkozy (e) None of these
124. What does the letter F denote in ‘NBFCs’, a term seen very frequently in banking world these days?
(a) Formal (b) Fiscal (c) Federal (d) Functional (e) Financial
125. Who among the following is the Deputy Governor of the RBI at present?
(a) Sunil Mitra (b) Azim Premji (c) HR Khan (d) Sushma Nath (e) None of these
126. Standard and Poor’s is a Credit Rating Agency of international repute. Which of the following is one such agency of Indian origin?
(a) IBA (b) BASEL (c) SEBI (d) IRDA (e) CRISIL
127. Who among the following is the chief minister of Uttar Pradesh at present?
(a) Akhilesh Yadav (b) Mulayam Singh Yadav (c) Mayawati (d) Amar Singh (e) None of these
128. Coin of which of the following denominations is called Small Coin?
(a) Rs. 1 (b) Rs. 2 (c) Rs. 5 (d) 50 paise (e) Rs. 10
129. Which of the following is not a highlight of the Union Budget 2012-13?
(a) No change in the rate of Corporate Tax. (b) All types of loans upto Rs. 35 lakh will be given on 6% interest only. (c) Service Tax raised from 10% to 12%. (d) Fiscal Deficit is targeted at 5.1% of GDP. (e) Substantial increase in Defence Budget.
130. Which of the following services products of banks is specially designed and launched to help students?
(a) Personal loan (b) Corporate loan (c) Business loan (d) Medical loan (e) Education loan
131. Which of the following terms is not directly associated with the functioning of RBI?
(a) Open Market Operations (b) Cash Reserve Ratio (c) SENSEX (d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (e) Public Debt Office
132. Which of the following is one of the major activities of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) ?
(a) On-site inspection of Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) (b) Helping Govt of India in preparing Union Budget and presenting it in the cabinet meeting. (c) Acting as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country. (d) Deciding rate of interest on Savings Bank Accounts in Public Sector Banks. (e) Representing India in World Bank and other such agencies.
133. Dipika, who won Crocodile Challenge Cup Finals, in December 2011, is a famous
(a) Badminton player (b) Table Tennis player (c) Lawn Tennis player (d) Chess player (e) Squash player
134. Who among the following is the recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature given in 2011?
(a) Bruce A Beutler (b) V S Naipaul (c) Thomas Transtromer (d) Ralph M Steinman (e) Chetan Bhagat
135. The 59th National Film Award for Best Actress was given to
(a) Vidya Balan (b) Kareena Kapoor (c) Priyanka Chopra (d) Lara Dutta (e) Roopa Ganguly
136. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the body/ agency set up to boost foreign investments in India?
(a) FORE (b) FCCB (c) FIPB (d) FEMA (e) AITAF
137. Which of the following is not considered infrastructural sector of the economy?
(a) Electricity (b) Textile Sector (c) Telecom (d) Cement (e) Road and Railways
138. Sachin Tendulkar made his 100th century in the match played between India and
(a) Pakistan (b) England (c) Australia (d) Bangladesh (e) Sri Lanka
139. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2012?
(a) TV Rajeswar (b) Aruna Irani (c) AR Rahman (d) Shabana Azmi (e) Anup Jalota
140. Which of the following countries is a member of BRICs?
(a) Bhutan (b) Iran (c) Romania (d) Sudan (e) South Africa
141. Which of the following countries has recently placed its first space lab ‘Tiangong-1’ into orbit?
(a) North Korea (b) Japan (c) India (d) France (e) China
142. Who among the following is the Solicitor General of India at present?
(a) Jacob Mathew (b) Rohinton Nariman (c) Gopal Subramaniam (d) Ashok Chawla (e) None
143. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India to motivate school children to attend school regularly?
(a) Kutir Jyoti (b) Mid-Day Meal (c) MGNREGA (d) RAY (e) Bharat Nirman
144. As per the news published in various newspapers, govt is planning to set up a regulatory body in educational field especially for
(a) Higher Education (b) Medical Education (c) Elementary Education (d) Secondary Education (e) Adult Education
145. Which of the following countries has been selected as the host of Commonwealth Games 2018?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) Pakistan (d) South Africa (e) Sri Lanka
146. France has agreed to supply ‘Rafale’ to India. The deal is about the supply of
(a) Warships (b) RADAR system (c) Fighter Aircrafts (d) Nuclear Reactors (e) Submarines
147. Seychelles, where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country in the
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) China Sea (c) Indian Ocean (d) Red Sea (e) Caspian Sea
148. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics?
(a) Absolute Zero (b)Molecular Equation (c) Zero Point Energy (d) Balance of Payment (e) Mass Defect
149. ‘Kyoto Protocol’, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with the field of
(a) International trade (b) Clean environment and climate change (c) Currency swap (d) Deep sea mining and oil exploration (e) Building a common food stock to save mankind in case of any natural calamity
150. World AIDS Day is observed on which of the following days?
(a) 1st December (b) 1st March (c) 1st April (d) 1st May (e) 1st January
151. USA decided to withdraw its army from which of the following countries after a nine-year long stay?
(a) Afghanistan (b) Libya (c) Egypt (d) Iraq (e) Iran
152. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(a) FIFA Cup (b) Champions Trophy (c) Ranji Trophy (d) Subroto Cup (e) Davis Cup
153. Which award is given to the coaches of sportspersons?
(a) Dronacharya Award (b) Arjun Award (c) Kalidas Samman (d) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (e) Saraswati Samman
154. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
(a) Heave (b) Silly point (c) Tee (d) Smash (e) Grand Slam
155. Anew nuclear power plant is being set up in which of the following places in India?
(a) Amethi (b) Firozabad (c) Jaitapur (d) Joshi Math (e) Satna
156. Which of the following schemes has been launched to make cities of India slumfree?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (b) Bharat Nirmal (c) Rajiv Awas Yojana (d) Indira Awas Yojana (e) None of these
157. Who among the following is a famous author of Indian origin?
(a)Homi K Bhabha (b) Kiran Desai (c) Swati A Piramal (d) Shabana Azmi (e) Ronen Sen
158. Who among the following has written the famous book Malgudi Days?
(a) VS Naipaul (b) Deepak Chopra (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d)Vijay Tendulkar (e) RK Narayan
159. Which of the following is NOT the name of the currency of a country?
(a) Rand (b) Pound (c) Dinar (d) Ecuador (e) Dollar
160. Which of the following is the unit of heat?
(a) Joule (b) Ohm (c) Ampere (d) Volt (e) Newton

Part- V: Computer Knowledge

161. What is backup?
(a) Adding more components to your network. (b) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination. (c) Filtering old data from the new data. (d) Accessing data on tape (e) Using earlier data.
162. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a
(a) software privacy policy (b) software license (c) software password manager (d) software log (e) None of these
163. What is an e-mail attachment?
(a) A receipt sent by the recipient. (b) A separate document from another program sent along with an e-mail. (c) A malicious parasite that feeds on your messages and destroys and contents. (d) A list of CC or BCC recipients. (e) A friend to whom e-mail is sent regularly.
164. Which of the following is the type of software that controls the internal operations in the computer and controls how the computer works with all its parts?
(a) Shareware (b) Public domain software (c) Application software (d) Operating system software (e) None of these.
165. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes.
(a) data redundancy (b) information overload (c) duplicate data (d) data consistency (e) data inconsistency
166. What is the main folder on a storage device called?
(a) Root directory (b) interface (c) Device driver (d) Platform (e) Main directory
167. To view information on the Web you must have a
(a) cable modem (b) Web browser (c) domain name server (d) hypertext viewer (e) None of these
168. A file is often referred to as a
(a) Wizard (b) document (c) pane (d) device (e)documentation
169. To protect yourself from computer hacker intrusions you should install a
(a) firewall (b) mailer (c) macro (d) script (e) None of these
170. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a client-server system?
(a) Mainframe (b) Mini-computer (c) Microcomputer (d) PDA (e) None of these
171. What happens when you boot up a PC?
(a) Portions of the operating system are copied from disk into memory. (b) Portions of the operating system are copied from memory onto disk. (c) Portions of the operating system are compiled. (d) Portions of the operating system are emulated. (e) The PC gets switched off.
172. Linux is an example of
(a) freeware (b) open source software (c) shareware (d)complimentary (e) None of these
173. Which of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(a) Database (b) Document processor (c) Graphics package (d) Spreadsheet (e) Power Point
174. A ………. is used to read hand written or printed text to make a digital image that is stored in memory.
(a) printer (b) laser beam (c) scanner (d) touchpad (e) None of these
175. You organise files by storing them in
(a) archives (b) lists (c) indexes (d) folders (e) None of these
176. A…………….. is pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background.
(a) guide (b) model (c) ruler (d) template (e) design-plate
177. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(a) WRD (b) TXT (c) DOC (d) FIL (e) WD
178. Removing and replacing devices without turning off your computer is referred to as
(a) Hot swapping (b) Plug-n-Play (c) Bay swap (d) USB swapping (e) None of these.
179. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called.
(a) information engines (b) locator engines (c) web browsers (d) resource locators (e) search engines
180. Compiling creates a(n)
(a) error-free program (b) program specification (c) subroutine (d) algorithm (e) executable program
181. Expansion cards are inserted into
(a) slots (b) peripheral devices (c) the CPU (d) the back of the computer (e) None
182. A device that connects to a network without the use of cable is said to be
(a) distributed (b) non-wired (c) centralized (d) open source (e) wireless
183. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)
(a) workstation (b) CPU (c) magnetic disk (d) integrated circuit (e) complex circuit
184. Junk e-mail is also called
(a) crap (b) spoof (c) sniffer script (d) spool (e) spam
185. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to “infect” other computers is called a
(a) disease (b) torpedo (c) hurricane (d) virus (e) infector
186. …………… shows the files, folders, and drives on your computer, making it easy to navigate from one location to another within the file hierarchy.
(a) Microsoft Internet Explorer. (b) Windows Explorer (c) My Computer (d) Folders Manager (e) Windows Locator
187. The …………………. manual tells you how to use a software program.
(a)Documentation (b) programming (c) user (d) Technical (e) designer
188. A collection of interrelated records is called a
(a) utility file (b) management information system (c) database (d) spreadsheet (e) datasheet
189. File extension is used
(a) For naming the file (b) To ascertain that file name is not lost (c) To identify file (d) To identify file type (e) to make items complex
190. What is Gutter margin?
(a) Margin added to left margin (b) Margin added to right margin while printing (c) Margin added to binding side of the page while printing (d) Margin added to outside of page while printing (e) None of these
191. ALU of CPU has
(a) RAM space (b) Register (c) Byte space (d) Secondary storage space (e) None of these
192. What happens when operating system is loaded in RAM?
(a) Copying (b) Device driving (c) Booting (d) Multitasking (e) None of these
193. In page preview mode
(a) You can see all the pages of your document (b) You can see only that page on which your are currently working (c) You can see only that page which have no graphics (d) You can see only title page of your document (e) You can see only the last page of your document
194. When you will start your computer Boot routine will perform
(a) RAM Test (b) Disk drive test (c) Memory test (d) Power – on – self test (e) Whether power supply is on or off
195. Machine language uses
(a) Numeric code (b) English language code (c) Java Language (d) CPU Processing code (e) None of these
196. What is the keyboard short – cut for new slide?
(a) Ctrl + M (b) Ctrl + N (c) Ctrl + Shift + N (d) Ctrl + s (e) None of these
197. Vertical space between lines of text in document is called
(a) Double space (b) Line gap (c) Single space (d) Vertical spacing (e) Line spacing
198. Full form of CD – RW is
(a) Compact Drum, Read, Write (b) Compact Diskette, Read, Write (c) Compact Disc, Read – Only then write (d) Compact Diskette with Random Write Capability (e) Compact Disc – Rewritable
199. Password makes users capable
(a) To enter into system quickly (b) To use time efficiently (c) To retain the secrecy of files (d) To make file structure simple (e) To feel special
200. Files deleted from hard disc are sent to
(a) Dustbin (b) Floppy disc (c) Clip board (d) Mother board (e) Recycle bin

Answer Key:

1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(e) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(c)
9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(e) 14.(d) 15.(e) 16.(d)
17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(e) 20.(a) 21.(c) 22.(e) 23.(b) 24.(c)
25.(a) 26.(d) 27.(d) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(e) 31.(b) 32.(e)
33.(b) 34.(b) 35.(d) 36.(a) 37.(e) 38.(d) 39.(e) 40.(b)
41.(e) 42.(b) 43.(c) 44.(e) 45.(d) 46.(b) 47.(c) 48.(a)
49.(d) 50.(a) 51.(a) 52.(e) 53.(c) 54.(a) 55.(d) 56.(b)
57.(b) 58.(b) 59.(d) 60.(d) 61.(c) 62.(e) 63.(c) 64.(e)
65.(c) 66.(e) 67.(d) 68.(e) 69.(b) 70.(b) 71.(d) 72.(d)
73.(a) 74.(c) 75.(c) 76.(c) 77.(b) 78.(d) 79.(e) 80.(d)
81.(a) 82.(d) 83.(c) 84.(b) 85.(c) 86.(b) 87.(d) 88.(a)
89.(c) 90.(e) 91.(b) 92.(c) 93.(c) 94.(a) 95.(e) 96.(b)
97.(a) 98.(d) 99.(b) 100.(b) 101.(a) 102.(e) 103.(b) 104.(b)
105.(c) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(e) 109.(d) 110.(c) 111.(a) 112.(e)
113.(b) 114.(a) 115.(d) 116.(a) 117.(e) 118.(e) 119.(d) 120.(c)
121.(d) 122.(d) 123.(d) 124.(e) 125.(c) 126.(e) 127.(a) 128.(d)
129.(b) 130.(e) 131.(c) 132.(a) 133.(e) 134.(c) 135.(a) 136.(c)
137.(b) 138.(d) 139.(a) 140.(e) 141.(e) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(a)
145.(b) 146.(b) 147.(c) 148.(d) 149.(b) 150.(a) 151.(d) 152.(e)
153.(a) 154.(b) 155.(c) 156.(c) 157.(b) 158.(e) 159.(d) 160.(a)
161.(b) 162.(b) 163.(b) 164.(d) 165.(e) 166.(a) 167.(b) 168.(b)
169.(a) 170.(a) 171.(a) 172.(b) 173.(d) 174.(c) 175.(d) 176.(d)
177.(c) 178.(b) 179.(e) 180.(e) 181.(a) 182.(e) 183.(d) 184.(e)
185.(d) 186.(b) 187.(c) 188.(c) 189.(d) 190.(c) 191.(b) 192.(c)
193.(a) 194.(d) 195.(a) 196.(a) 197.(e) 198.(e) 199.(c) 200.(e)

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