Category: SPECIALIST OFFICER

This is for Eligibility Criteria

Selection process will be carried out in two stages, the first one is Common Written Examination and second stage is Common Interviews conducted by IBPS.

The whole process will be conducted only once a year for Specialist officer by Institute of Banking Personnel Selection.

Common Written Examination

Pattern:

The structure of the Written Examination will be conducted in Online Mode as follows…

1. All the Tests will be in Objective Type & is printed in Bilingual Format, except for English Paper.

2. The Specialist Officers Common Written Examination consists of 200 Objective Type Questions, each question carries one mark totally 200 marks and the time duration is 120 minutes.

3. Structure of Examination for Law Officer- Scale I &RajbhashaAdhikari Scale I:

S. No.	Name of the Tests	Maximum Marks	Total Time
1	Reasoning	50	120 Minutes
2	English Language	25
3	General Awareness with special reference to Banking Industry	50
4	Professional Knowledge	75
Total		200

 4. Structure of Examination for  I.T Officer (Scale I), Agriculture Field Officer (Scale I),  HR/ Personnel Officer (Scale I) & Marketing Officer (Scale I):

S. No.	Name of the Tests	Maximum Marks	Total Time
1	Reasoning	50	120 Minutes
2	English Language	25
3	Quantitative Aptitude	50
4	Professional Knowledge	75
Total		200

 Negative Marking:

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Cutoff Score:

Each candidate will have to secure a minimum score in each test and also on total to be considered to be called for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview.

Scores:

The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equipercentile method.

 INTERVIEW

Candidates who have been shortlisted in the examination for CRPSPL-IV will subsequently be called for anInterview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the nodal banks with the help ofIBPS. Interviews will be conducted at select centres. The centre, address of the venue, time & date of Interviewwill be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interviewcall letters from authorised IBPS websitewww.ibps.in. Please note that any request regarding change in date,centre etc. of interview will not be entertained. However the conducting agencies reserve the right to change thedate/ venue/ time/ centre etc. of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date / session / venue /centre / set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any.

The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD candidates). The weightage (ratio) of Online CWE (exam) and interview will be80:20. The combined final scores of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of total scores obtained by thecandidates in CWE (SPL-IV) and Interview. Interview score of the candidates failing to secure minimumqualifying marks or otherwise barred from the interview or further process shall not be disclosed.

A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlistedfor subsequent allotment process, details of which will be available subsequently on IBPS website.

While appearing for the Interview, the candidate should produce valid prescribed documents given below.In the absence of documents candidature of the candidates shall be cancelled. IBPS/ Nodal Bank/Participating organisations take no responsibility to receive/ connect any certificate/remittance/ documentsent separately

 

List of Documents to be produced at the time of interview(as applicable)

The following documents in original together with a self attested photocopy in support of the candidate’seligibility and identity are to be invariably submitted at the time of interview failing which the candidate may notbe permitted to appear for the interview. Non submission of requisite documents by the candidate at the timeof interview will debar his candidature from further participation in the recruitment process.

(i) Printout of the valid Interview Call Letter

(ii) Valid system generated printout of the online application form registered for CWE SPL-IV

(iii) Proof of Date of Birth (Birth Certificate or SSLC/ Std. X Certificate with DOB)

(iv) Photo Identify Proof as indicated in Point Fbelow

(v) Marksheets& certificates for educational qualifications.Proper document from Board / University forhaving declared the result on or before 10.12.2015 has to be submitted.

(vi) Caste Certificate issued by competent authority in the prescribed format as stipulated by Government ofIndia in case of SC / ST / OBC category candidates.

(vii) In case of candidates belonging to OBC category, certificate should specifically contain a clause that thecandidate does not belong to creamy layer section excluded from the benefits of reservation for OtherBackward Classes in Civil post & services under Government of India. OBC caste certificate containingthe Non-creamy layer clause should be valid as on the last date of online registration .Caste Name mentioned in certificate should tally letter by letter withCentral Government list / notification.

(viii) Candidates belonging to OBC category but coming under creamy layer and/ or if their caste doesnot find place in the Central List are not entitled to OBC reservation. They should indicate theircategory as General in the online application form.

(ix) Disability certificate in prescribed format issued by the District Medical Board in case of Persons WithDisability category

If the candidate has used the services of a Scribe at the time of CWE the duly filled in details of thescribe in the prescribed format

(x) An Ex-serviceman candidate has to produce a copy of the discharge Certificate / pension payment orderand documentary proof of rank last / presently held (substantive as well as acting) at the time ofinterview. Those who are still in defence service should submit a certificate from a competent authoritythat they will be relieved from defence services, on or before 08.12.2016.

(xi) Candidates serving in Government / quasi govt offices/ Public Sector Undertakings (includingNationalised Banks and Financial Institutions) are required to produce a “No Objection certificate” fromtheir employer at the time of interview, in the absence of which their candidature will not be consideredand travelling expenses, if any, otherwise admissible, will not be paid.

(xii) Persons eligible for age relaxation under B IV (5) must produce the domicile certificate at the time ofinterview/ at any stage of the subsequent process from the District Jurisdiction where he / she hadordinarily resided or any other authority designated in this regard by the Government of Jammu &Kashmir to the effect that the candidate had ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State ofJ&K during the period from 01.01.80 to 31.12.89.

(xiii) Persons eligible for age relaxation under B IV (6) must produce a certificate from the District Magistrateto the effect that they are eligible for relief in terms of the Rehabilitation Package for 1984 Riot AffectedPersons sanctioned by the Government and communicated vide Ministry of Finance, Dept. of FinancialServices communication No.F.No.9/21/2006-IR dated 27.07.2007.

(xiv) Persons falling in categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) of Point B (I) should produce a certificate of eligibilityissued by the Govt. Of India

(xv) Any other relevant documents in support of eligibility

 Note:- Candidates will not be allowed to appear for the interview if he/ she fails to produce the relevanteligibility documents as mentioned above.

The Competent Authority for the issue of the certificate to SC / ST / OBC / PERSONS WITHDISABILITIES is as under (as notified by GOI from time to time):

For Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes / Other Backward Classes: (i) District Magistrate / Additional DistrictMagistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner / Deputy Collector / First ClassStipendiary Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra AssistantCommissioner

(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate

(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar (iv) Sub-divisional officer of the Area where the candidateand or his family normally resides.

For Persons with Disabilities: Authorised certifying authority will be the Medical Board at the District levelconsisting of Chief Medical Officer, Sub-Divisional Medical Officer in the District and an Orthopaedic /Ophthalmic / ENT Surgeon.

Prescribed Formats of SC, ST, OBC, PWD certificatesas applicable to be submitted at the time of interview canbe downloaded from IBPS website www.ibps.in. Candidates belonging to these categories are required to producethe certificates strictly in these formats only.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Word Formation, Passage Correction, Sentence Correction, Spelling, Idioms and Phrases, Sentence Completion, Synonyms, Antonyms, Theme detection, Passage Completion, Conclusion

 REASONING

Sitting Arrangement, Series Completion, Syllogism, Decision Making, Statement Reasoning, Analogy, Coding Decoding, Blood Relation, Series Completion, Analogy, Classification

 Quantitative Aptitude

Numbers, Simplification, Roots, Average, Surds & Indices, Percentage, Profit and Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Boats & Streams, Allegations , Simple and Compound Interest, Stocks & Shares, Clocks, Logarithms, Mensuration, Volume & Surface Area, Permutation & combination, Probability, Heights & Distances Partnership, Chain Rule, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Problems on Trains, Pipes & Cisterns, Tabulation, Bar Graphs, Line Graphs, Pie Charts

 GENERAL/ BANKING AWARENESS

Questions in this section will be asked for testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environments around him and its application to society. These questions will be such that they do not require a specific study of any discipline.

Knowledge of current events, India and its neighbouring countries, Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economy, General Polity, Indian Constitution, Scientific Research

Over 50% of the questions will be related to Economy, Banking and Finance

PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

In this section, Questions from respective fields are asked- Agriculture, Law, Marketing, IT and HR

GATE Exam syllabus for respective discipline will be the syllabus for Professional Knowledge. Only basic questions will be asked.

IBPS SO IT Officer Syllabus

Data Base Management System (DBMS) ,RDBMS, E- R Diagrams, Normalization, Overview of SQL queries, Transaction Management, Data Communication & Networking, IP Addressing (Subnetting), Network, Architecture, OSI Model, TCP-IP Model, Data Communication.

Operating System, Types of OS, Semaphore, Scheduling, Network Security, Cyber Crimes – Risk Management, Firewall, Cryptography, Process thread, Dead Lock, Memory Partitioning, Page Replacement, Computer organization, Hardware, Microprocessor, Bus Structure etc.

Software Engineering and data structure topics: SDLC, Software Development Models, Array, Linked List, Stacks etc.

Web Technologies and basics of Programming Languages topics: HTML Tags, XML, Network Security, basics of C, C++, OOP languages.

 Blue print

Area

Year		2011Scale I & II	2012Scale I & II
Topics	Sub topic
Quantitative Aptitude	Simplification	5	10
	Number System	5	2
	Ratio & Proportion	2	1
	Time & Work	1	–
	Percentage	3	–
	Missing Numbers	5	5
	Algebra	–	5
	Area	1	–
	Train	2	–
	Profit & Loss	–	1
	Average	1	1
	Data Sufficiency	5	5
Data Interpretation	Table	5	5
	Pie Chart	5	–
	Bar Graph	5	5
	Line Graph	–	5
	Case Studies	5	5
Verbal Reasoning	Alphabet Test	3	2
	Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzles	5	5
	Sequential Output Tracing	5	5
	Seating Arrangement	5	5
	Eligibility Test	5	5
	Coding & Decoding	2	2
	Data Sufficiency	5	5
	Mathematical Operations	5	5
	Number Ranking	–	1
	Statements	5	5
Non-verbal Reasoning	Completion of Series	10	10
English	Spotting Errors	15	10
	Synonyms	5	3
	Antonyms	2	3
	Idioms & Phrase	5	5
	Paragraph Rearrangement	5	5
	Sentence Completion	–	5
	Comprehension	8	9
	Cloze Test	10	10
Professional Knowledge		50	50

IBPS Specialist Officer 2012

1. In a certain code ‘TEAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in that code?

(a) QDOOPT

(b) QDOMNR

(c) SFQMNR

(d) SFQOPT

(e) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

(e) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words, not ending with ‘D’ can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’ using each letter only once in each word? (All letters are counted from left to right)

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

(e) More than three

4. In a certain code ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘5$3%#1’ and ‘TRIED’ is written as ‘14*#2’. How is ‘SKIRT’ written in that code?

(a) 3%*41

(b) 3*%41

(c) 3%#41

(d) 3#4%1

(e) None of these

5. The positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 81943275 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on till the fourth and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

(a) 1

(b) 9

(c) 2

(d) 4

(e) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

M 3 # R A T 1 E J $ K @ F U 5 4 V I 6 © D 8 * H N 7 d 2 W

6. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) T E R

(b) U 4 @

(c) 6 D V

(d) J 1 K

(e) N d *

7. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

(e) More than three

8. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?RT1$@F 4I6?

(a) 8 * H

(b) 8 H N

(c) 8 H 7

(d) D * H

(e) None of these

9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

(e) More than three

10. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?

(a) V

(b) @

(c) d

(d) ©

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements andGive answer (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question (c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question (d) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and (e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

11. Among M, P, T, R and W each being of a difference age, who is the youngest?

I. T is younger than only P and W

II. M is younger than T and older than R

12. How is ‘gone’ written in a code language?

I. ‘you will be gone’ is written as ‘ka pa ni sa’ in that code language

II. ‘he will be there’ is written as ‘ja da ka ni’ in that code language

13. On which day of the week (starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week) did Sushant visit Chennai?

I. Sushant visited Chennai two days after his brother visited Chennai

II. Sushant did not visit Chennai either on Wednesday or on Friday

14. Towards which direction is P with respect to the starting point?

I. P walked 20m, took a right turn and walked 30m, again took right turn and walked 20 m towards West

II. P walked 30m, took a left turn and walked 20m, again took left turn and walked 30m towards East

15. How is K related to Z?

I. Z and P are the only sisters of D

II. D’s mother is wife of K’s father

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, #, © and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’ ‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’ ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’ ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’ ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’ Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, II and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

16. Statements:  R # J, J $ D, D @ K, K % T

Conclusions:    I. T # D         II. T @ D        III. R # K       IV. J $ T

(a) Either I or II is true

(b) Only III is true

(c) III and IV are true

(d) Either I or II and III are true

(e) None of the above

17. Statements: T % R, R $ M, M @ D, D © H

Conclusions:    I. D % R       II. H # R      III. T © M     IV. T % D

(a) Only I is true

(b) I and IV are true

(c) I and II are true

(d) II and IV are true

(e) None of the above

18. Statements: M @ B, B # N, N $ R, R © K

Conclusions:    I. K # B       II. R © B      III. M $ R      IV. N © M

(a) I and III are true

(b) I and II are true

(c) II and IV are true

(d) II, III and IV are true

(e) None of these

19. Statements: F # H, H @ M, M © E, E $ J

Conclusions:    I. J © M       II. E # H       III. M © F     IV. F # E

(a) I and II are true

(b) II and III are true

(c) I, II and III are true

(d) II, II and IV are true

(e) None of these

20. Statements: D % A, A @ B, B © K, K % M

Conclusions:   I. B $ D        II. K # A      III. M # B     IV. A © M

(a) I, II and IV are true

(b) I, II and II are true

(c) II, III and IV are true

(d) I, III and IV are true

(e) All I, II, III and IV are true

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers give in the arrangement are two digit numbers).

Input

:

gone

over

35

69

test

72

park

27

Step I

:

27

gone

over

35

69

test

72

park

Step II

:

27

test

gone

over

35

69

72

park

Step III

:

27

test

35

gone

over

69

72

park

Step IV

:

27

test

35

park

gone

over

69

72

Step V

:

27

test

35

park

69

gone

over

72

Step VI

:

27

test

35

park

69

over

gone

72

Step VII

:

27

test

35

park

69

over

72

Gone

And Step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input as the desired arrangement is obtained.As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

21. Input: 86 open shut door 31 49 always 45, How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a) Five

(b) Six

(c) Seven

(d) Four

(e) None of these

22. Step III of an input: 25 yes 37 enemy joy defeat 52 46, Which of the following is definitely the input?

(a) enemy 25 joy defeat yes 52 37 46

(b) 37 enemy 25 joy yes 52 37 46

(c) enemy joy defeat 25 52 yes 46 37

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of the above

23. Step II of an input: 18 win 71 34 now if victory 61

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(c) Five

(d) Six

(e) More than six

24. Input: where 47 59 12 are they going 39, Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

(a) VII

(b) IV

(c) V

(d) VIII

(e) None of these

25. Step II of an input: 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods 52, Which of the following will be step VI?

(a) 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods

(b) 33 store 52 of 75 full 81 goods

(c) 33 store 52 of 75 goods 81 full

(d) There will be no such step

(e) None of the above

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-HR in an Organization The candidate must ___________ (i) be at least 30 yr and not more than 35 yr as on 1.3.2012 (ii) have secured at least 60% marks in Graduation in any discipline (iii) have secured at least 65% marks in the Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Personnel Management/ HR (iv) have post qualification work experience of at least five years in the Personnel / HR department of an organization (v) have secured at least 50% marks in the selection process In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (1) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 55% marks in Graduation in any discipline and at least 70% marks in Post Graduate Degree / Diploma in Personnel Management / HR, the case is to be referred to GM – HR (2) at (iv) above, but has post qualification work experience of at least four years out of which at least two years as Deputy Manager – HR, the case is to be referred to President – HR In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2012. Mark answer (a) If the candidate is not to be selected (b) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision (c) If the case is to be referred to President – HR (d) If the case is to be referred to GM – HR (e) If the candidate is to be selected 26. Rita Bhatt was born on 25th July, 1978. She has secured 62% marks in Graduation and 65% marks in Post Graduate Diploma in Management. She has been working for the past six years in the Personnel Department of an Organization after completing her Post Graduation. She has secured 55% marks in the selection process 27. Ashok Pradhan was born on 8th August, 1980. He has been working in the Personnel department of an organization for the past four years after completing his Post Graduate Degree in Personnel Management with 67%. Out of his entire experience, he has been working for the past two years as Deputy Manager – HR. He has secured 62% marks in Graduation and 58% marks in the selection process 28. Alok Verma was born on 4th March, 1976. He has been working in the Personnel Department of an organization for the past six years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 66% marks. He has secured 57% marks in the selection process and 63% marks in Graduation 29. Swapan Ghosh has been working in the Personnel Department of an organization for the past five years after completing his Postgraduate Degree in HR with 72% marks. He has secured 56% marks in Graduation. He was born on 12th May, 1977. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process 30. Seema Behl has been working in the Personnel Department of an organization for the past seven years after completing her Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 70% marks. She was born on 5th July, 1979. She has secured 65% marks in Graduation and 50% marks in the selection process

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends travelling in three different cars, viz. X, Y and Z with at least two in one car to three different places, viz Delhi, Chandigarh and Agra. There is at least one female member in each car. D is travelling with G to Delhi but not in car Y. A is travelling with only H in car Z but not to Chandigarh. C is not travelling with either D or E. F and D are studying in the same only girls’ college. H, B and G are studying in the same only boys’ college.

31. Which of the following represents the group of females among them?

(a) F, C, A

(b) F, G, A

(c) D, C, A

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

32. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a) Delhi – X – C

(b) Chandigarh – X – F

(c) Agra – Z – E

(d) Delhi – Y – E

(e) None of these

33. In which car are four of them travelling?

(a) X or Z

(b) Y

(c) X or Y

(d) Z

(e) None of these

34. In which of the following cars is C travelling?

(a) X

(b) Y

(c) Z

(d) Either X or Y

(e) Data inadequate

35. Passengers in which car travelling to Chandigarh?

(a) Y

(b) X

(c) Either X or Y

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 36-40): In each of the questions below is given a statement, followed by a question. Read the statement carefully and answer the question that follows.

36. Statement: The State government granted special status to the seminar on the importance of protecting the environment around us organized by the local academic body to create awareness among the citizens.

Which of the following may be a probable reason for the State Government’s decision?

(a) The Central Government has accorded highest priority to issues related to protection of environment, over all other issues

(b) In the past the State Government had granted special status to such seminars

(c) The State Government has failed to implement measures for protecting the environment

(d) The local academic body made a fervent appeal for the special status

(e) None of these

37. Statement: Most car manufacturers have marginally reduced the price of their products despite higher input costs and increased Govt. duties and have promised to keep the prices at least the next couple of months.

Which of the following can be a best possible reason for the above step by car manufacturers?

(a) Car manufacturers have not been able to meet their sales target for the current year so far

(b) The Government is planning to review taxes on the raw materials for manufacturing cars

(c) The car sales market is going through a jubilant phase as the volume of sales has picked up considerably in the recent past and profit per car has also gone up

(d) Car buyers are still hesitant to make their purchases and may postpone for another few months

(e) Oil marketing companies are contemplating reviewing the petrol and diesel prices in order to decide future market prices

38. Statement: The prices of vegetables and other food articles have decreased in the recent months raising hope among policy planners that the RBI’s (Reserve Bank of India) tight grip on supply of liquid money in the market for controlling inflation may be eased.

Which of the following may be a possible action of the above situation?

(a) The Reserve Bank of India may not reduce its key interest rates in near future

(b) The Government may step in and make certain concessions to the common people on various issues

(c) The Reserve bank of India may consider lowering certain rates to bring in more liquidity in the market

(d) The RBI may wait for at least another year before taking any step

(e) The RBI may collect more data from the market and wait for another four months to ensure they take the correct step

39. Statement: A severe cyclonic storm hit the Eastern coastline last month resulting in huge loss of life and property on the entire East coast and the Government had to disburse a considerable amount for relief activities through the district administration machineries.

Which of the following may possibly be a follow up measure to be taken up by the Government?

(a) The Government may set up a task force to review the post relief scenario in all districts and also to confirm proper end user receipt of the relief supplies

(b) The Government may set up a committee for proper disbursement of relief supplies in future

(c) The Government may empower the District Magistrates to make all future disbursements of relief

(d) The Government may send relief supplies to the affected people in future only after proper assessment of the damage caused by such calamities

(e) The Government may not need to activate any follow up measure

40. Statement: It has been reported in a recent study that intake of moderate quantity of milk chocolate reduces the risk of suffering from central nervous system related illnesses.

Which of the following would weaken the findings of the study reported in the above statement?

(a) People generally prefer to eat chocolate when they are young

(b) Majority of those not diagnosed with diseases related to central nervous system have stayed away from eating chocolates in their lives

(c) Chocolates contain certain elements which strengthen the functions of the central nervous system

(d) Majority of those suffering from central nervous system related diseases are middle aged

(e) Many of those who suffer from diabetes also suffer from other major ailments

D.41-45) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued

41. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

42. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

43. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

44. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

45. Problem figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

Directions (46-50) In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series/sequence. One and only one out of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequence. The number of that figure is your answer

46. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

47. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

48. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

49. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

50. Problem figure Answer figure

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

(e) 5

Directions: (Q. No 51-60) In the following passage are blanks, each of the which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.(51) over the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally recognised are daily violated, (52) in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interest. Violations of these rights have (53) new problems in human social system, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all of which have (54) people’s lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to (55) the incidences of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic data and systems, computer related crimes, content related offenses and violations of intellectual property rights. (56) threats to critical infrastructure and national interest arising from the use of the internet for criminal and terrorist activities are of growing (57). The harm incurred to businesses, government and individuals in those countries in which the internet is used (58), is gaining in (59) and importance, which in other countries, cybercrime threatens the application of information and communication technology for government services, healthcare, trade and banking. As users start losing (60) in online transactions and business, the opportunity costs may become substantial.

51.

(a) Entire

(b) Lot

(c) Great

(d) All

(e) Much

52.

(a) Scarcely

(b) Whether

(c) And

(d) For

(e) Hardly

53.

(a) Created

(b) Bent

(c) Pressured

(d) Risen

(e) Stopped

54.

(a) Distanced

(b) Affected

(c) Exaggerated

(d) Advanced

(e) Cropped

55.

(a) Engage

(b) Conflict

(c) War

(d) Combat

(e) Struggle

56.

(a) But

(b) More

(c) Addition

(d) Beside

(e) Further

57.

(a) Concern

(b) Nature

(c) Pattern

(d) Important

(e) Matter

58.

(a) Really

(b) Figuratively

(c) Widely

(d) Never

(e) Tandem

59.

(a) Fear

(b) Days

(c) Positivity

(d) Width

(e) Scope

60.

(a) Tracks

(b) Measure

(c) Confidence

(d) Mind

(e) Grip

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.(A) It is no wonder that a majority of these excluded and low-achievers come from the most deprived sections of society. (B) They are precisely those who are supposed to be empowered through education. (C) With heightened political consciousness about the plight of these to –be–empowered person, never in the history of India has the demand for inclusive education been as fervent as today. (D) Thy either never enroll or they drop out of school at different stages during these eight years. (E) Of the nearly 200 million children in the age group between 6 and 14 years, more than half do not complete eight years of elementary education. (F) Of those who do complete eight years of schooling, the achievement levels of a large percentage, in language and mathematics, is unacceptably low.

61. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) F

62. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

63. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F

(b) E

(c) D

(d) C

(e) B

64. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

65. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F

(b) E

(c) D

(d) B

(e) A

Direction (Q. Nos. 66-70) In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

66. Facts spoke louder than words at the Company meeting where the Director tried to paint a rosy picture of the Company’s financial health.

(a) Too many facts related to the good financial health of the Company were presented during the meeting.

(b) The Company was not doing well financially despite the Director saying otherwise

(c) The Director was very loud while presenting the facts about the Company’s financial health during the meeting

(d) The facts stated in the meeting supported the Director’s claims of good financial health of the Company

(e) The Company was doing exceptionally well financially, despite the Director saying saying otherwise

67. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had killed the goose that lay the golden egg.

(a) By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had left her speechless.

(b) Kajal had ruined her chances of success by picking a fight with Sakshi in office

(c) Kajal had exacted her revenge by picking a fight with Sakshi in office

(d) Kajal had hurt Sakshi by picking a fight with her in office

(e) By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had missed getting the golden egg.

68. I let the chips fall where they may and do not worry too much about what I want to do next.

(a) I take calculated risks

(b) I let others do what they want and do not interfere

(c) I am clumsy

(d) I do not try to control my destiny

(e) I prefer chaos to calm.

69. After trying hard to convince Narendra to change his ways. Raman realised that a leopard cannot change its spots.

(a) Raman realised that Narendra would never change his ways

(b) Raman realised that Narendra was helpless

(c) Raman realised that he was not good at convincing others

(d) Raman realised that Narendra would change his ways soon.

(e) Raman realised that someone else was forcing Narendra to act in a certain way.

70. Before starting work on our new project, our mentor told us to not count our chickens before they hatched.

(a) Our mentor warned us against being over-confident about achieving success

(b) Our mentor asked us to meticulously count the chicken first and then the eggs

(c) Our mentor warned us against being over enthusiastic in implementing the project

(d) Our mentor warned us about all the challenges that lay ahead of us

(e) Our mentor informed us about the prizes that we would get on succeeding

Directions (Q. No. 71-85) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

71. The third season of (a) / the popular television show will ends (b) / on a grand note with (c) / celebrities dancing and having fun (d) / No error (e)

72. The website, which does not (a) / accept advertisements and is funded (b) / entirely by donations, describes itself (c) / as the fifth most popular website on the planet (d) / No error (e)

73. As sharing crime statistics for (a) / the year 2011, the Commissioner admitted that (b) / there had been an undue delay in (c) / the setting up of an anti-narcotics cell (d) / No error (e)

74. The Moon may be the best place (a) / to look for aliens as their (b) / footprints on their surface would (c) / last far longer than radio signals (d) / No error (e)

75. The judge advised the government to (a) / have metered autorickshaws across the state while (b) / recounting his personal experience where an autorickshaw driver (c) / made him to wait and also demanded Rs 100 (d) / No error (e)

76. The Company aims (a) / kidnapped a child has now (b) / been apprehended and is being (c) / held in the city’s jail (d) / No error (e)

77. The woman that had (a) / kidnapped a child has now (b) / been apprehended and is being (c) / held in the city’s jail (d) / No error (e)

78. Rose growers in (a) / the city are waking up (b) / to the benefits (c) / of collective action (d) / No error (e)

79. The Minister will have (a) / a tough task on his hands (b) / where three different recommendations (c) / for this year’s rate reach his desk (d) / No error (e)

80. The current economic scenario (a) / could possibly undo (b) / the growth that followed (c) / the economic liberations of 1991 (d) / No error (e)

81. In a first of its kind study, (a) / a team of scientists have tried to (b) / ‘grow’ new stem cells in (c) / the ear that get damage with age (d) / No error (e)

82. If successful, the research could (a) / pave the way towards (b) / the prevention in untimely deaths (c) / due to fatal illnesses (d) / No error (e)

83. The Ministry has directed Bank (a) / to do away with their (b) / separate promotion policies, a move (c) / strongly opposed by the officer’s unions (d) / No error (e)

84. After a complaint was filed, (a) / police teams was given the photograph (b) / of the accused from the CCTV footage (c) / recorded at the hotel (d) / No error (e)

85. Activists opposing the rail project said (a) / that the eleven new flyovers to be built (b) / would practically ring (c) / the death knell for the city (d) / No error (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-100) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.In India innovation is emerging as one of the most important rubrics in the discourse on how to bring about greater and more consistent economic and social development. One observes steadily growing investments in R & D across the country, the setting up of national and state innovation bodies, as well as the introduction of government-sponsored innovation funds. There have also been several conferences and debates on innovation and how to best promote and accomplish it in India, and a number of articles on the subject, written for newspaper and magazines, as well as more informal platforms like online forums and Blogs. Academic engagement and Indian authorship on the subject have also exploded in the last five years. Despite widespread agreement on the importance of innovation in India, there are wide gulfs between different conceptions of innovation and the path India should take towards securing benefits through investment in innovation. Many Indian conservations around innovation begin by talking about jugaad, that uniquely Indian approach to a temporary fix when something complex, like an automobile or a steam engine stops working. However, many observers have pointed out that while jugaad is certainly innovative, it is a response to the lack of an innovation culture – more a survival or coping mechanism at a time of need than a systematic methodology to effectively address a wide-ranging, complex set of problems. Another specifically Indian approach to innovation that has entered into wide currency of late is so-called ‘frugal innovation’, deemed by many to be the most appropriate for the Indian context. In its midterm assessment of 11th five-year plan, the Planning Commission stressed the need for innovation in India in order to accelerate its growth and to make growth more inclusive as well as environmentally sustainable. The document went on to say that India needs more frugal innovation that produces more frugal cost products and services that are affordable by people at low levels of incomes without compromising the safety, efficiency and utility of the products. The country also needs processes of innovation that are frugal in the resources required to produce the innovations. The products and processes must also have frugal impact on the Earth’s resources. Two people formulated a similar theory called the More-from-Less-for-More (MLM theory of innovation) theory of Innovation, which advocates a focus on innovations that allow for more production using fewer resources but benefit more people. Under this rubric come products that are more affordable versions of existing technologies. While both frugal innovation and the MLM theory are certainly valuable in terms of bringing affordable products and services to a greater number of people and may even be considered a necessary first step on India’s innovation path, they barely graze the surface of what innovation can accomplish. That is, innovation is capable of bringing about complete paradigm-shifts and redefining the way we perceive and interact with the world. Take the cell phone, for example: It revolutionized communication in a previously inconceivable way, provided consumers with a product of unprecedented value and created an entirely new market. The cell phone was a result of years of directed, intentional innovation efforts and large investments, and would not have ever been created if the people responsible simply set out to make the existing telephone cheaper and more accessible to all. While jugaad and frugal innovation may be indicative of the Indian potential for innovativeness, this potential is not utilized or given opportunity to flourish due to the lack of an enabling culture. India’s many diverse and complex needs can be met only through systematic innovation and major shifts have to first take place in our educational institutions, government policies and commercial firms in order for such an innovation-enabling culture to come about. The one thing that India’s innovation theorists have not said is that the absence of a culture of innovation is intrinsically linked to many of the most intractable problems facing India as a nation. These include poor delivery of government services, inadequate systems of personal identification and the absence of widely available financial services for rural poor, health and sanitation failures. This list can go on. Cumulatively, the inability of India as a nation, society and economy to adequately provide for its own population no longer reflects a failure of implementation, but rather of a failure of innovation, for there are not immediately-available off-the-shelf solutions that would make it possible for these grand challenges facing India to be redressed. Rather, we need to look at these intractable problems from the sophisticated and empowering lens of innovation, for them to begin to be solved.

86. Which of the following depict/s the growing importance of innovation in India?

(I) Increased investment in research.

(II) Initiation of Govt. backed funds for innovation.

(III) Increase in number of conferences arranged and articles written on innovation

(a) Only (II)

(b) (I) and (II)

(c) Only (III)

(d) (II) and (III)

(e) All of these

87. Which of the following best describes the MLM theory of innovation?

(a) Maximise output by using least number of resources and benefiting a small number of people

(b) Maximise resource utilization and cost thereby benefit maximum number of people

(c) Minimise output and resource utilization, yet benefit the maximum number of people

(d) Benefit most number of people through least usage of resources and maximum output

(e) Benefit most number of people through maximum usage of resources and minimizing cost

88. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

(a) Innovation At Its Best

(b) India And The Elixir Called Innovation

(c) Innovation Around The World vis-a-vis India And Other Neighbouring Countries

(d) Worldwide Development In Innovation

(e) Innovation- The History

89. What tone is the author employing in the entire passage to get his message across?

(a) Pessimistic

(b) Sarcastic

(c) Urgent

(d) Informative

(e) Dubious

90. Why, according to the author, is India unable to adequately provide for its people?

(a) Failure to implement schemes and initiatives meant for the Indian populace

(b) Absence of regulatory authorities to overse the implementations process

(c) Failure to innovate in order to find solutions

(d) Lack of governmental schemes and initiatives to redress the challenges faced by India

(e) Hesitance of the Indian people in trying out different schemes provided by the Government for upliftment

91. What, according to some people, is ‘jugaad’ not the answer to India’s problems?

(a) Many a times this methodology backfires leading to further complications

(b) ‘Jugaad’ provides only cheap solutions to all problems

(c) It is reactive and not a proactive and organized method of finding solutions to problems

(d) It can provide solutions to only simple problems and not complex ones

(e) None of the above

92. Which of the following is/are true about the cell phone?

(I) The innovation of the cell phone required investment of huge capital.

(II) The cell phone, when invented was meant to be affordable to all.

(III) The cell phone was made available to the public in a very short time its ideation.

(a) Only (I)

(b) (I) and (II)

(c) (II) and (III)

(d) Only (II)

(e) All of these

93. What does the author mean by ‘frugal impact on the Earth’s resources’ as given in the passage?

(a) The damage to the environment should be assessable

(b) More consumption of natural resources as compared to manmade ones

(c) Minimum impact on the environment in terms of pollution

(d) The impact on the environment should be such that it is reversible

(e) Minimum usage of Earth’s natural resources

Directions (Q. Nos. 94-98) choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

94. REDRESSED

(a) Addressed

(b) Equalized

(c) Restored

(d) Redone

(e) Rearranged

95. CURRENCY

(a) Notes

(b) Usage

(c) Money

(d) Cash

(e) Value

96. INTRINSICALLY

(a) Internally

(b) Whole-heartedly

(c) Fundamentally

(d) Virtually

(e) Unavoidably

97. INDICATIVE

(a) Causative

(b) Forthcoming

(c) Verbal

(d) Abstract

(e) Suggestive

98. COMPROMISING

(a) Co-operating with

(b) Reducing the quality

(c) Hampering the progress

(d) Conciliating in order to

(e) Adjusting for the better

Directions (Q. Nos. 99-100) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

99. LACK

(a) Presence

(b) Sufficiency

(c) Charisma

(d) Adequacy

(e) Dearth

100. INCONCEIVABLE

(a) Visible

(b) Truthful

(c) Incredible

(d) Apparent

(e) Complex

Directions (101-110): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions?

101. 625.97 × 7.5 + 299.87 = ? – 4632.64

(a)9627.285

(b)9672.85

(c) 9227.285

(d) 9762.285

(e) None of these

102. 7860 ÷ 24 × 12 + 370 = ?

(a) 4200

(b) 4300

(c) 4600

(d) 4400

(e) None of these

103. v? + 7820 = 9206 – 206 – 1100

(a) 9604

(b) 8281

(c) 6400

(d) 8100

(e) None of these

104. 8999 + 7999 + 6999 = ?

(a) 24997

(b) 24979

(c) 23979

(d) 23997

(e) None of these

105. 6840 ÷ 100 ÷ 50 = ?

(a) 3420

(b) 13.68

(c) 1.368

(d) 342

(e) None of these

106. ? – 9707.67 = 203.007

(a) 9087.007

(b) 8010.787

(c) 9880.007

(d) 9910.677

(e) None of these

107. (45)²  + (?)² = 9864 – 6720

(a) 32

(b) 33

(c) 34

(d) 43

(e) None of these

108. 68320 – 79999 + 100902 = ?

(a) 89323

(b) 89223

(c) 89332

(d) 89232

(e) None of these

10 9. 7982 – ? = 6792 – 2024

(a) 3142

(b) 3124

(c) 3241

(d) 3214

(e) None of these

110. 6(1/2)×7(1/2) + 6(1/2) = ?

(a) 45

(b) 55

(c) 54

(d) 56

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 111 – 115) what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

111. 7, 20, 46, 98, 202, ?

(a) 420

(b) 410

(c) 310

(d) 320

(e) None of these

112. 210, 209, 213, 186, 202, ?

(a) 138

(b) 77

(c) 177

(d) 327

(e) None of these

113. 27, 38, 71, 126, 203, ?

(a) 212

(b) 202

(c) 301

(d) 312

(e) None of these

114. 435, 354, 282, 219, 165, ?

(a) 103

(b) 112

(c) 120

(d) 130

(e) None of these

115. 4, 200, 369, 513, 634, ?

(a) 788

(b) 715

(c) 734

(d) 755

(e) None of these

116. The angels of quadrilateral are in the ratio of 2:4:7:5. The smallest angle of the quadrilateral is equal to the smallest angle of a triangle. One of the angles of the triangle is twice the smallest angle of the triangle. What is the second largest of the triangle?

(a) 80°

(b) 60°

(c) 120°

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

117. A shopkeeper sells notebooks at the rate of Rs. 45 each and earns a commission of 4%. He also sells pencil box at the rate of Rs. 80 each and earns a commission of 20%. How much amount of commission will he earn in two weeks if he sells 10 notebooks and 6 pencil boxes a day?

(a) Rs. 1956

(b) Rs. 1586

(c) Rs. 1496

(d) Rs. 1596

(e) None of these

118. Train – A crosses a stationary Train – B in 50 s and a pole in 20 s with the same speed. The length of the Train – A is 240m. What is the length of the stationary Train – B?

(a) 360m

(b) 260m

(c) 300m

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

119. In a test, minimum passing percentage for girls and boys is 35% and 40% respectively. A boy scored 483 marks and failed by 117 marks. What are the minimum passing marks for girls?

(a) 425

(b) 520

(c) 500

(d) 625

(e) None of these

120. Twelve per cent of Kaushal’s monthly salary is equal to sixteen per cent of Nandhini’s monthly salary. Suresh’s monthly salary is half that of Nandhini’s monthly salary. If Suresh’s annual salary is R. 1.08 lacs. What is Kaushal’s monthly salary?

(a) Rs. 20000

(b) Rs. 18000

(c) Rs. 26000

(d) Rs. 24000

(e) None of these

121. 8 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 8 women can complete the same work in 32 days. In how many days will 5 men and 8 women together complete the same work?

(a) 16 days

(b) 12 days

(c) 14 days

(d) 10 days

(e) None of these

122. The area of square is 1024 sq cm. what is the respective ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangle whose length is twice the side of the square and breadth is 12 cm less than the side of the square?

(a) 5:18

(b) 16:7

(c) 14:5

(d) 32:5

(e) None of these

123. The sum of five consecutive even numbers of set A is 220. What is the sum of a different set of five consecutive numbers whose second lowest number in 37 less than double of the lowest number set A?

(a) 223

(b) 225

(c) 235

(d) 243

(e) None of these

124. The bus fare for one person is Rs. 420 from Agra to Aligarh and train fare between the same places for one person is equal to three – fourth the bus fare for two persons between the same places. What is the total fare paid by 2 persons travelling by bus and 4 persons travelling by train between the two places?

(a) Rs. 3360

(b) Rs. 3460

(c) Rs. 3440

(d) Rs. 3406

(e) None of these

125. The respective ratio between the speeds of a car, a jeep and a tractor is 3:5:2. The speed of the jeep is 250 percent the speed of the tractor which covers 360 km in 12 h. what is the average speed of car and jeep together?

(a) 6 Km/h

(b) 75 km/h

(c) 40 km/h

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

Directions (126-130): In each of the following questions two equations are given. You have to solve the equations and

(a) If x< y                 (b) if x = y                    (c) if x = y                                  (d) if x = y                        (e) if x > y

126.        (i) 4×2 – 8x +3 =0                              (ii) 2y2 – 7y +6 =0

127.        (i) X2 + x -6 = 0                                   (ii) 2y2 +13y +21=0

128.        (i) 8×2 +3x=38                                   (ii) 6y2 + 34= 29y

129         (i) X2=4                                                (ii) y2 +6y +9 = 0

130.        (i) 2x +3y=4                                        (ii) 3x +2y=11

131. What was the respective ratio between the number of students passed out from College – P in the year 2008 and number of students passed out form College – S in the year 2006?

(a) 38:41

(b) 23:29

(c) 19:21

(d) 17:21

(e) None of these

132. Number of students passed out from College – R in the year 2008 was approximately what percentage of the total 2006, 2007 and 2009 together?

(a) 20

(b) 33

(c) 24

(d) 38

(e) 28

133. What was the average number of students passed out from all the colleges together in the year 2007?

(a) 13500

(b) 57500

(c) 1.15 thousands

(d) 11500

(e) None of these

134. In which college was the number of students passed out in the year 2008 second highest?

(a) Q

(b) P

(c) T

(d) S

(e) R

135. In which college the number of the students passed out continuously increased during the year 2005 to 2010?

(a) Only R and T

(b) Only Q

(c) Only P

(d) Only Q and T

(e) None of the above

Directions (Q. Nos. 136 – 140): Study the following Pie – chart carefully to answer these questions.

136. If two – ninth of the teachers who teach Physics are female then number of male Physics teachers is approximately what percentage of the total number of teachers who teach Chemistry?

(a) 57

(b) 42

(c) 63

(d) 69

(e) 51

137. What is the total number of teachers teaching Chemistry, English and Biology?

(a) 1226

(b) 1116

(c) 1176

(d) 998

(e) None of these

138. What is the difference between the total number of teachers who teach English and Physics together and the total number of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology together?

(a) 352

(b) 342

(c) 643

(d) 653

(e) None of these

139. What is the respective ratio of the number of teachers who teach Mathematics and the number of teachers who teach Hindi?

(a) 13:7

(b) 7:13

(c) 7:26

(d) 8:15

(e) None of the above

140. If the percentage of Mathematics teachers is increased by 50 percent and percentage of Hindi teachers decreased by 25 per cent then what will be the total number of Mathematics and Hindi teachers together?

(a) 390

(b) 379

(c) 459

(d) 480

(e) None of these

Directions: (Q. Nos. 141 – 145): Study the following graph and answer the question that follow.

141. What is the difference between the number of candidates appeared from institutions – B, C, D and F together and candidates passed form institutions – A, E and G together?

(a) 100

(b) 900

(c) 1000

(d) 540

(e) None of these

142. What is the average number of candidates passed from all the institutions together?

(a) 700

(b) 490

(c) 350

(d) 675

(e) None of these

143. Number of candidates passed form institutions – C and E together is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates appeared from institutions – A and G together?

(a) 72

(b) 62

(c) 54

(d) 75

(e) 67

144. From which institution the different between the appeared candidates and passed candidates is maximum?

(a) B

(b) G

(c) D

(d) F

(e) None of these

145. What is the respective ratio between the number of candidates who have field from institutions – B and the number of candidates who have appeared from institution – F?

(a) 2:5

(b) 2:3

(c) 4:3

(d) 1:3

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 146 – 150): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

A company produces 4 different products viz. ACs fans, refrigerators and ovens each product of two different qualities, i.e., Quality – A and Quality – B. The Company products are fans out of which 35% are of Quality – B. Fifteen per cent of the total number of products are ACs. Two – third of AC’s are of Quality – A. Twenty five per cent of the total number of products are refrigerators out of which 40’ are of Quality – B. Ten per cent of the number of ovens are of Quality – B.

146. What is the total number of AC’s and ovens of Quality – B fans and refrigerators of Quality – A together made by Company?

(a) 165

(b) 205

(c) 155

(d) 185

(e) None of these

147. What is the average number of products of Quality – A made by the company?

(a) 90

(b) 75

(c) 80

(d) 95

(e) None of these

148. What is the respective ratio between the number of ovens of Quality – B and the number of fans of Quality – A?

(a) 5:2

(b) 4:13

(c) 5:13

(d) 4:9

(e) None of these

149. What is the difference between the numbers of ACs of Quality – A and Quality – B?

(a) 25

(b) 50

(c) 35

(d) 40

(e) None of these

150. Number of refrigerators of Quality – A is approximately what percentage of the total number of ovens (both Quality – A and B together)?

(a) 39

(b) 31

(c) 35

(d) 43

(e) 49

151. A passive threat to computer security is –.

(a) Malicious Incent

(b) Sabotage

(c) Accidental Errors

(d) Espionage Agents

(e) None of these

152. The secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification

(a) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or web site is   legitimate

(b) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server

(c) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server

(d) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit –card transaction systems

(e) None of these

153. — allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and it services such as the Web and e-mail.

(a) TCP/IP

(b) Ethernet

(c) WAP

(d) Token ring

(e) None of these

144. ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have —-.

(a) A Boot Record

(b) A File Allocation Table

(c) A Root Directory

(d) Virtual Memory

(e) BIOS

155. ‘MICR’ technologies used for clearance of cheques by banks refer to —.

(a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

(b) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition

(c) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition

(d) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition

(e) None of these

156. All the information collected during database development is stored in a —.

(a) repository

(b) data warehouse

(c) RAD

(d) CASE

(e) None of these

157. The ____ component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.

(a) data extraction

(b) end-user query tool

(c) end-user presentation tool

(d) data store

(e) None of these

158. A(n) _____ allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server.

(a) single-user license agreement

(b) network site license

(c) end-user license agreement

(d) business software license

(e) None of these

159. A polymorphic virus ____.

(a) Modifies its program code each time it attaches it-self to another program or file

(b) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains

(c) a malicious-logic program that hides with in or looks like a legitimate program

(d) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program

(e) None of these

160. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is ____.

(a) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable

(b) easy or promising and where line-of-sight is unavailable

(c) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available

(d) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available

(e) None of these

161. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?

(a) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open

(b) Limit the users who can loads software, edit or add files

(c) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data

(d) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters

(e) None of these

162. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is ___.

(a) Biometrics

(b) Compression

(c) Encryption

(d) Ergonomics

(e) None of these

163. The word FTP stands for ___

(a) File Translate Protocol

(b) File Transit Protocol

(c) File Typing Protocol

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) None of these

164. Voice mail ____.

(a) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet

(b) Permits user to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet

(c) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party

(d) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations

(e) None of these

165. A communications processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is _____.

(a) Bridge

(b) Gateway

(c) Router

(d) Modem

(e) All of these

166. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the web?

(a)  VBScript

(b) JavaScript

(c) CSS

(d) JAVA

(e) None of these

167. This ____ tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.

(a) Client

(b) Applications/Web server

(c) Enterprise server

(d) DBA

(e) None of these

168. RSA is _____.

(a) Symmetric Cryptosystem

(b) Asymmetric Cryptosystem

(c) Block Cypher

(d) Digital Signature

(e) None of these

169. A DVD-RAM is similar to a ___, except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.

(a) CD-R

(b) floppy disk

(c) CD-RW

(d) hard disk

(e) None of these

170. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?

(a) The type of drivers that come with the mouse

(b) The length of the mouse cord

(c) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with

(d) The number of buttons the mouse has

(e) None of these

171. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?

(a) Through a power cable

(b) From an external power supply

(c) Directly from the computer’s power supply

(d) Through the USB cable

(e) None of these

172. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except

(a) each computer must have a network card

(b) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices

(c) there must be at least one connecting devices

(d) each computer must have software  that supports the movement of information

(e) None of these

173. This _____ data mining technique derives rules from real world case examples.

(a) Rule discover

(b) Signal processing

(c) Neural nets

(d) Case-based reasoning

(e) None of these

174. _____ are used to identify a user who returns to a Web site.

(a) Cookies

(b) Plug-ins

(c) Scripts

(d) ASPs

(e) None of these

175. Which of the following statements is not true about two –tier client-server architecture?

(a) SQL statements are processed on the server

(b) SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients

(c) Business logic is mostly processed on clients

(d) Business logic may be processed on the server

(e) None of these

176. Which of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?

(a) ServletRequest

(b) HttpServletRequest

(c) ServletResponse

(d) HttpServletResponse

(e) None of these

177. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called ___

(a) Metasearch engines

(b) Webcrawlers

(c) Spiders

(d) Hits

(e) None of these

178. In Oracle, which statement is true about segments?

(a) Each table has its own segment

(b) A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered

(c) An index segment is created every time a table is created

(d) A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated

(e) None of these

179. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of system include__

(a) use-case, class, and state diagrams

(b) state, interaction, derivative diagrams

(c) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams

(d) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams

(e) None of these

180. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the ____.

(a) database is strucrted

(b) database is well-designed

(c) database has no data

(d) database is relatively small

(e) database is relatively large

181. Which of the following are normally used in initialize a computer system’s hardware?

(a) Bootstrap memory

(b) Volatile memory

(c) External mass memory

(d) Static memory

(e) Random access memory

182. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?

(a) ARP

(b) RARP

(c) ICMP

(d) PING

(e) PONG

183. Which of the following switching methods provides the greatest frame throughput?

(a) Store-and-forward switching

(b) Frame-tag-switching

(c) Cut-through switching

(d) ISL switching

(e) Store-and-backward switching

184. In Oracle, what is the default number of transactions that MAXTRANS is set to if not specified?

(a) 512

(b) 10

(c) 4

(d) 1

(e) 255

185. In the straight CGI approach to database connectivity on the Internet____.

(a) the external program is located between the client and the web server

(b) the external program is located between the database server and database

(c) the external program is located between the web server and the database server

(d) there is no external program

(e) None of these

186. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, ___ symmetric keys are needed.

(a) 190

(b) 200

(c) 20

(d) 19

(e) 210

187. What is Internet2?

(a) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks

(b) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access

(c) A new standard for Internet browsers

(d) An association to develop advanced Internet technology

(e) None of these

188. In Oracle, which tablespace is the minimum required when creating a new database?

(a) Undo tablespace

(b) Temporary tablespace

(c) System tablespace

(d) Users tablespace

(e) None of these

189. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tri-state outputs is to ____.

(a) allow for three separate data input lines

(b) allow the bidirectional flow of data between the bus lines and the ROM registers

(c) permit the connection of may ROM chips to a common data bus

(d) isolate her registers from the data bus during read operations

(e) None of these

190. The term, “hypertext”, means

(a) Non-sequential writing

(b) Hypermedia

(c) Blinking text

(d) Text with heavy formatting

(e) None of these

191. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?

(a) Visit Google’s cached page to view the older copy

(b) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information

(c) Visit a partner site of the organisation to see if it is there

(d) Use the wayback machine

(e) None of these

192. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?

(a) Cipher

(b) Warded

(c) Device

(d) Tumbler

(e) Typelock

193. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

194. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being accessed?

(a) The address input

(b) The output enable

(c) The chip enable

(d) The data input

(e) The data output

195. What is the name of protocol used in eliminate loops?

(a) Switching

(b) ISL

(c) Frame tagging

(d) Spanning Tree Protocol

(e) None of these

196. The process by which the structure of the database is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies and repeating groups is ____.

(a) enforcing data integrity

(b) enforcing referential integrity

(c) indexing

(d) normalization

(e) None of these

197. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently, travel from system to system, and disrupt computer communications?

(a) Trojans

(b) Viruses

(c) Idlers

(d) Droppers

(e) Worms

198. In Oracle, who owns the data dictionary?

(a) Oracle

(b) SYS

(c) The DBA

(d) SYSTEM

(e) None of these

199. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?

(a) Console Port

(b) IP

(c) Hostname

(d) SNMP

(e) Default Gateway

200. In Oracle, which is more appropriate to store a small list of values in a single column in each row in your address table?

(a) ORACARRAY

(b) Nested table

(c) Index organized table

(d) Index

(e) VARRAY

Answer Key

1.(c)	2.(e)	3.(b)	4.(a)	5.(a)	6.(d)	7.(e)	8.(b)
9.(d)	10.(e)	11.(e)	12.(d)	13.(d)	14.(c)	15.(d)	16.(d)
17.(a)	18.(c)	19.(b)	20.(e)	21.(b)	22.(d)	23.(b)	24.(e)
25.(c)	26.(e)	27.(c)	28.(a)	29.(d)	30.(e)	31.(d)	32.(e)
33.(e)	34.(b)	35.(a)	36.(d)	37.(c)	38.(e)	39.(a)	40.(b)
41.(e)	42.(c)	43.(a)	44.(b)	45.(b)	46.(e)	47.(d)	48.(a)
49.(a)	50.(d)	51.(d)	52.(b)	53.(a)	54.(b)	55.(d)	56.(e)
57.(a)	58.(c)	59.(c)	60.(c)	61.(e)	62.(e)	63.(c)	64.(a)
65.(d)	66.(b)	67.(b)	68.(d)	69.(a)	70.(a)	71.(b)	72.(d)
73.(a)	74.(c)	75.(d)	76.(d)	77.(d)	78.(e)	79.(c)	80.(d)
81.(b)	82.(c)	83.(d)	84.(b)	85.(e)	86.(e)	87.(d)	88.(b)
89.(d)	90.(c)	91.(c)	92.(a)	93.(e)	94.(a)	95.(b)	96.(a)
97.(e)	98.(b)	99.(b)	100.(a)	101.(a)	102.(b)	103.(c)	104.(d)
105.(c)	104.(d)	107.(e)	108.(b)	109.(d)	110.(e)	111.(b)	112.(b)
113.(e)	114.(c)	115.(c)	116.(b)	117.(d)	118.(a)	119.(e)	120.(d)
121.(a)	122.(e)	123.(e)	124.(a)	125.(a)	126.(a)	127.(e)	128.(e)
129.(e)	130.(c)	131.(c)	132.(e)	133.(d)	134.(c)	135.(e)	136.(a)
137.(b)	138.(b)	139.(e)	140.(c)	141.(c)	142.(a)	143.(e)	144.(c)
145.(b)	146.(e)	147.(d)	148.(b)	149.(a)	150.(d)	151.(a)	152.(d)
153.(c)	154.(e)	155.(a)	156.(a)	157.(b)	158.(b)	159.(a)	160.(c)
161.(d)	162.(c)	163.(d)	164.(c)	165.(b)	166.(d)	167.(b)	168.(b)
169.(c)	170.(c)	171.(d)	172.(d)	173.(d)	174.(a)	175.(c)	176.(e)
177.(a)	178.(b)	179.(a)	180.(c)	181.(a)	182.(a)	183.(c)	184.(d)
185.(a)	186.(a)	187.(d)	188.(a)	189.(c)	190.(b)	191.(a)	192.(a)
193.(e)	194.(c)	195.(d)	196.(d)	197.(e)	198.(b)	199.(e)	200.(e)